← All subjects

Performance Questions

100 questions

Easy

39

Medium

44

Hard

17

First 10 questions free — unlock all 100 with Rotate Pro

Unlock All
1

TODA is defined as:

easytakeoff-performance
2

ASDA is defined as:

easytakeoff-performance
3

V1 is defined as the:

easyv-speeds
4

VR is the speed at which:

easyv-speeds
5

V2 is the:

easyv-speeds
6

VMCG is the minimum control speed:

mediumv-speeds
7

VMCA is the minimum speed at which directional control can be maintained:

mediumv-speeds
8

Which relationship must always be maintained during takeoff?

mediumv-speeds
9

VMCG must always be less than or equal to:

mediumv-speeds
10

VS in the landing configuration is known as:

easyv-speeds
11

The climb gradient is defined as:

easyclimb-performance
12

For a Class A aeroplane, the minimum second segment climb gradient with one engine inoperative is:

mediumclimb-performance
13

The second segment of the takeoff flight path begins at:

mediumclimb-performance
14

Rate of climb is:

easyclimb-performance
15

The absolute ceiling is the altitude where:

mediumclimb-performance
16

The service ceiling is the altitude where maximum rate of climb drops to:

mediumclimb-performance
17

Specific range is defined as:

easycruise-performance
18

Long-range cruise (LRC) speed is typically:

mediumcruise-performance
19

A cost index of 0 in the FMS represents:

mediumcruise-performance
20

A high cost index in the FMS will result in:

easycruise-performance
21

Maximum endurance speed occurs at the speed for:

hardcruise-performance
22

The screen height for landing distance for Class A aircraft is:

mediumlanding-performance
23

For a wet runway, the landing distance required must be factored by:

mediumlanding-performance
24

The dry runway landing distance factor for commercial operations is:

mediumlanding-performance
25

LDA stands for:

easylanding-performance
26

During a drift-down after engine failure above the OEI ceiling, the aircraft:

mediumengine-failure
27

The net takeoff flight path is obtained by reducing the gross gradient by:

hardengine-failure
28

OEI stands for:

easyengine-failure
29

An increase in temperature above ISA will:

easydensity-altitude
30

An increase in aerodrome pressure altitude will:

easydensity-altitude
31

ISA temperature at sea level is:

easydensity-altitude
32

The ISA temperature lapse rate in the troposphere is:

mediumdensity-altitude
33

Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for:

easydensity-altitude
34

Runway contamination with standing water primarily affects performance by:

easyrunway-contamination
35

The minimum aquaplaning speed for a tyre on a wet runway is approximately:

hardrunway-contamination
36

Compacted snow on a runway will:

easyrunway-contamination
37

MTOW stands for:

easyweight-limitations
38

MZFW is the maximum weight of the aircraft with no:

mediumweight-limitations
39

The structural limitation that MZFW primarily protects is:

hardweight-limitations
40

MLW stands for:

easyweight-limitations
41

The net takeoff flight path must clear all obstacles by at least:

mediumobstacle-clearance
42

The standard obstacle accountability area half-width for takeoff is:

hardobstacle-clearance
43

A clearway may not exceed:

hardtakeoff-performance
44

A stopway must be:

mediumtakeoff-performance
45

A balanced field length exists when:

mediumtakeoff-performance
46

VMU is the:

mediumv-speeds
47

VREF is:

mediumv-speeds
48

The regulated takeoff weight (RTOW) is the lowest of:

hardregulated-takeoff-weight
49

Increasing flap setting for takeoff will:

hardtakeoff-performance
50

A headwind during takeoff will:

easytakeoff-performance
51

An uphill runway slope will:

easytakeoff-performance
52

A tailwind during landing will:

easylanding-performance
53

The screen height for takeoff with all engines operating is:

mediumtakeoff-performance
54

If an engine fails before V1, the pilot should:

easytakeoff-performance
55

If an engine fails at or after V1, the pilot should:

easytakeoff-performance
56

The first segment of the takeoff flight path ends when:

mediumclimb-performance
57

During the third segment of the takeoff flight path, the aircraft:

mediumclimb-performance
58

The minimum required gross climb gradient for the final takeoff segment (2-engine, OEI) is:

hardclimb-performance
59

Best angle of climb speed (VX) gives the:

easyclimb-performance
60

Best rate of climb speed (VY) gives the:

easyclimb-performance
61

For a jet aircraft, maximum range speed occurs at the speed for:

hardcruise-performance
62

Step climbing during cruise is used to:

mediumcruise-performance
63

The optimum cruise altitude for a jet increases as:

mediumcruise-performance
64

On a hot day compared to ISA, an aircraft will have:

easydensity-altitude
65

High humidity will:

mediumdensity-altitude
66

During a drift-down procedure, the recommended speed is:

mediumengine-failure
67

The minimum obstacle clearance during a drift-down is:

hardengine-failure
68

If an obstacle cannot be cleared on the net takeoff flight path, the pilot may:

mediumobstacle-clearance
69

Viscous aquaplaning occurs:

hardrunway-contamination
70

Reverted rubber aquaplaning is caused by:

hardrunway-contamination
71

TORA is defined as:

easytakeoff-performance
72

The effect of a downhill runway slope on takeoff is:

easytakeoff-performance
73

If a flight requires a fuel load that would make TOW exceed MTOW, the pilot must:

easyweight-limitations
74

The relationship between aircraft weights is:

easyweight-limitations
75

A steep approach (5.5° glideslope) is sometimes used to:

mediumlanding-performance
76

Using reverse thrust for landing performance calculations in the EU is:

hardlanding-performance
77

At the maximum range cruise speed, specific range is:

easycruise-performance
78

As aircraft weight decreases in cruise, the speed for maximum range:

mediumcruise-performance
79

After an engine failure during cruise, the pilot should first:

easyengine-failure
80

The obstacle accountability area widens if:

mediumobstacle-clearance
81

The effect of a tailwind on takeoff performance is:

easytakeoff-performance
82

VLO is the maximum speed for:

mediumv-speeds
83

VLE is the maximum speed with:

mediumv-speeds
84

VFE is the maximum speed for:

easyv-speeds
85

Reduced thrust takeoff (assumed temperature method) is used to:

mediumtakeoff-performance
86

When is a reduced thrust takeoff NOT permitted?

mediumtakeoff-performance
87

The initial climb-out speed for a twin-engine jet with one engine inoperative should not be less than:

easyclimb-performance
88

Green dot speed on Airbus aircraft represents:

mediumclimb-performance
89

The buffet onset boundary limits the:

hardcruise-performance
90

The 'coffin corner' refers to:

hardcruise-performance
91

Autobrakes at a higher setting will:

easylanding-performance
92

The approach speed (VAPP) in turbulent conditions is typically:

mediumlanding-performance
93

Maximum taxi weight exceeds MTOW by the:

mediumweight-limitations
94

Anti-ice usage during takeoff affects performance by:

mediumtakeoff-performance
95

ISA standard pressure at sea level is:

easydensity-altitude
96

A wet runway is defined as one where the surface is soaked but without:

mediumrunway-contamination
97

A contaminated runway is one where more than what percentage is covered with water, slush, snow, or ice?

mediumrunway-contamination
98

The ASD (Accelerate-Stop Distance) assumes engine failure at:

mediumtakeoff-performance
99

If an aircraft must land overweight in an emergency:

mediumweight-limitations
100

The net ceiling is the altitude where the net rate of climb equals:

hardclimb-performance