Every private pilot checkride is built from the same document: the Private Pilot for Airplane Category ACS, FAA-S-ACS-6C. Each task in it has a code such as PA.I.A.K3 — Private Airplane, Area of Operation I, Task A, Knowledge element 3 — and the examiner builds a plan of action from those codes, with scenarios that cover as many tasks as possible (ACS, Appendix 1). The examiner does not have to test every element; they sample, and the ground portion has to be passed before the flight begins.
So the useful way to prepare is by task. Below, each task from Area I gets the questions examiners reach for most, the short answer they are listening for with its source, and the follow-up that tends to come next. The follow-up is where applicants get into trouble, because it is the part you cannot memorize.
PA.I.A Pilot qualifications
Usually the first ten minutes. The examiner is checking you know what your certificate lets you do and what keeps it valid — and, under risk management, the difference between being current and being proficient (PA.I.A.R1).
Your pilot certificate, a photo ID such as a driver’s license or passport, and a medical certificate, each in your physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft (61.3(a), (c)). Under BasicMed the medical is replaced by a valid U.S. driver’s license plus the completed medical examination checklist and the course completion certificate in your logbook (61.113(i)(3)).
Follow-up: “Your pilot certificate is at home. Can you fly solo today?” No. The requirement applies whether or not you carry passengers.
| Medical class | Under 40 at the exam | 40 or older at the exam |
|---|---|---|
| First, second or third class | End of the 60th month after the exam month | End of the 24th month after the exam month |
To act as PIC you need a flight review — at least 1 hour of ground and 1 hour of flight training — since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month of the flight (61.56(a), (c)). Passing a practical test for a certificate counts as one (61.56(d)(1)), so passing today resets the clock.
Three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days, as sole manipulator of the controls, in the same category and class; and, because passengers are aboard between 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise, three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop in that same period within the last 90 days (61.57(a), (b)). In a tailwheel airplane, the day landings must also be to a full stop.
Follow-up: “When do the position lights have to be on?” From sunset to sunrise (91.209(a)). That is a different night from the one you log, which runs from the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight (14 CFR 1.1). Three definitions of night, three rules.
They can share, but you may not pay less than your pro rata share of the operating expenses, and only fuel, oil, airport expenditures or rental fees count (61.113(c)). A private pilot may not act as PIC for compensation or hire outside the exceptions in 61.113.
Yes, if I have held an FAA medical at any point after July 14, 2006, complete the online medical course every 24 calendar months and get a comprehensive exam from a state-licensed physician every 48 calendar months (61.23(c)(3)). The limits: an aircraft authorized for no more than 7 occupants and 12,500 lb maximum takeoff weight, no more than 6 passengers, not above 18,000 feet MSL, not faster than 250 knots indicated, and within the United States unless another country authorizes it (61.113(i)).
PA.I.B Airworthiness requirements
The No. 2 cause of oral failures in the examiner records we cite throughout this series, and it has its own complete guide. The two questions that almost always appear:
A landing light is only required at night when the aircraft is operated for hire (91.205(c)(4)). If it is also not part of the type-certification VFR-day equipment and not required by the equipment list, the KOEL or an AD, it can be deactivated or removed and placarded “Inoperative” under 91.213(d), with a pilot or mechanic determining it is not a hazard. Whether you want to land at night without it is the risk-management half.
PA.I.C Weather information
The ACS names the products: METAR, SPECI and PIREPs; the surface analysis and ceiling and visibility charts; TAFs; the Graphical Forecasts for Aviation; winds and temperatures aloft; the convective outlook; and AIRMETs, SIGMETs and convective SIGMETs (PA.I.C.K2). The question that exposes a weak applicant is simple:
Observations — METARs, PIREPs, radar — are history. TAFs, the GFA’s forecast panels, winds aloft and the outlooks are forecasts (the GFA shows both observations and forecasts). An examiner who asks how you will know the weather at your destination two hours from now does not want to hear “I’ll listen to the ATIS.” The full decoding drill is in the weather guide.
PA.I.D Cross-country flight planning
You bring a plan to your first fuel stop, based on real weather, and the examiner pokes holes in it (PA.I.D.S1). Know why each number on your nav log is there.
Enough, considering wind and forecast weather, to reach the first point of intended landing and then fly at normal cruise for 30 minutes by day or 45 minutes at night (91.151(a)). That is the legal floor, not a personal minimum.
Follow-up: “The winds aloft are 15 knots stronger on the nose than forecast. Recalculate.” This is literally a skill element (PA.I.D.S4). Do it on paper or in your EFB, out loud.
Above 3,000 feet AGL in level cruise, VFR, below 18,000 feet MSL: magnetic course 0–179°, odd thousands plus 500; 180–359°, even thousands plus 500 (91.159). Then terrain, glide distance, airspace and the winds, which is what the ACS actually lists.
Not required, but strongly recommended; filed with Flight Service on the ICAO format (FAA Form 7233-4) and activated after departure. A proposed VFR plan is normally kept for two hours after the proposed departure time (AIM 5-1-5). If you do not close or extend it within half an hour after your ETA, search and rescue procedures start, and towers do not close it for you (AIM 5-1-14).
PA.I.E National Airspace System
The No. 1 oral failure topic. It deserves more than a paragraph, so it has one of its own: airspace questions and answers, class by class. The single question to test yourself with: at exactly 700 feet AGL under a magenta vignette, what airspace are you in? (Class G; the floor belongs to the airspace below, 91.155(e).)
Reading an answer and saying one are different skills. Here is one question the way the mock oral asks it — answer before you look:
Airspace · Class B · the examiner asks
We're going to depart and transit Class B today. What are the requirements for me as PIC and for the aircraft?
Tap once to turn on the mic, then hold to talk
Study aid, not an FAA examiner. The AI grades your answer against a written rubric and can still make mistakes — always confirm against the current FAR/AIM, the ACS and your instructor.
PA.I.F Performance and limitations
From the cruise performance chart in the POH for the altitude, temperature and power setting planned. A designated pilot examiner describes exactly this trap: suspiciously round numbers like 10 gallons per hour and 110 knots tell him the applicant never opened the chart. For takeoff and landing, the regulation itself requires you to know the runway lengths and the POH distance data before flight (91.103(b)).
Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. Higher temperature, higher elevation and humidity all raise it; the airplane then produces less power and lift, and takeoff roll gets longer while climb rate falls (PHAK, Ch. 11).
Follow-up: PA.I.F.R3, the difference between calculated and actual performance. The chart assumes a new airplane and a test pilot; say what margin you add.
Less longitudinal stability, lighter control forces and a lower stall speed, but stall and spin recovery become harder. A forward CG does the opposite: more stable, higher stall speed, harder to flare (PHAK, Ch. 10).
PA.I.G Operation of systems
If the examiner picks systems knowledge, the ACS requires them to test at least three sub-elements — flight controls, powerplant, fuel, electrical, pitot-static and so on (PA.I.G, note). Know your airplane, from its POH.
In a fixed-pitch airplane, RPM drops because warmer, less dense air enters the engine. If ice was present, RPM drops and then rises as the ice melts. Carburetor ice is most likely below about 70°F with high relative humidity, and can form well outside that range (PHAK, Ch. 7).
The altimeter freezes at the altitude where the port blocked, the vertical speed indicator reads zero, and the airspeed indicator is wrong: low in a climb, high in a descent. The fix is the alternate static source, if installed (PHAK, Ch. 8).
PA.I.H Human factors
Hypoxic (not enough oxygen available, as at altitude), hypemic (the blood can’t carry it — carbon monoxide, anemia), stagnant (poor circulation, for example from G-loads or cold) and histotoxic (the cells can’t use it — alcohol, some drugs) (PHAK, Ch. 17).
Follow-up: “When do you need oxygen?” Required crew must use it above 12,500 feet cabin altitude for flight of more than 30 minutes there, and at all times above 14,000; above 15,000 every occupant must be provided with it (91.211(a)). The AIM encourages oxygen above 10,000 feet by day and 5,000 feet at night (AIM 8-1-2).
The AIM recommends waiting at least 12 hours after a dive that did not require a controlled ascent before flying up to 8,000 feet, at least 24 hours after one that did, and at least 24 hours after any dive before flying above 8,000 feet (AIM 8-1-2).
Know all five with their antidotes: anti-authority (“Follow the rules”), impulsivity (“Not so fast, think first”), invulnerability (“It could happen to me”), macho (“Taking chances is foolish”) and resignation (“I’m not helpless”) (PHAK, Ch. 2). The honest answer to “which is yours?” scores better than “none.” New in ACS-6C: confirmation and expectation bias (PA.I.H.R4) — hearing the clearance you expected instead of the one you got.
Areas II–XII: asked in the airplane
The ACS says oral questioning continues throughout the entire test. These are the knowledge elements from the flight areas that most often turn into questions on the ramp or in cruise.
PA.III.A: light gun signals (K3)
| Signal | On the ground | In the air |
|---|---|---|
| Steady green | Cleared for takeoff | Cleared to land |
| Flashing green | Cleared to taxi | Return for landing |
| Steady red | Stop | Give way, continue circling |
| Flashing red | Taxi clear of the runway in use | Airport unsafe, do not land |
| Flashing white | Return to starting point | — |
| Alternating red and green | Exercise extreme caution | Exercise extreme caution |
PA.IX.C and IX.D: malfunctions and emergency equipment
An electrical failure is the classic scenario (PA.IX.C.K2a); the ACS-6C also added startle response as a risk element. For the ELT (PA.IX.D.K1): it must be inspected within 12 calendar months, and its battery replaced after 1 cumulative hour of use or half its useful life (91.207(c)–(d)). Test an analog ELT only in the first 5 minutes after the hour, for no more than three sweeps; satellites have not monitored 121.5 MHz since 2009, only 406 MHz (AIM 6-2-4). In an emergency, squawk 7700 (AIM 6-2-2).
PA.XI.A: night operations
Night equipment beyond day VFR: position lights, anticollision lights, a landing light if for hire, an adequate source of electricity and spare fuses if the airplane uses them (91.205(c)). Full dark adaptation takes at least 30 minutes; dim red light gives a moderate degree in about 20, at the cost of distorting colors on your chart (AIM 8-1-6).
Quick answers
How many questions does the examiner ask in the private pilot oral?
There is no fixed number. The ACS lets the evaluator sample knowledge and risk-management elements from each task rather than test every one, and it says oral questioning continues throughout the entire practical test, including in flight (FAA-S-ACS-6C, Appendix 1).
How long is a third-class medical valid for private pilot privileges?
If you were under 40 on the date of the exam, until the end of the 60th month after the month of the exam. If you were 40 or older, until the end of the 24th month (14 CFR 61.23(d)).
Which topics fail the most applicants in the oral?
In one examiner's records of 157 checkrides, the National Airspace System was the No. 1 cause of oral failures, closely followed by airworthiness. Weather and performance charts also come up repeatedly.
Sources
- FAA-S-ACS-6C, Private Pilot for Airplane Category ACS (Area I; Appendix 1)
- 14 CFR 61.3, 61.23, 61.56, 61.57, 61.113 (pilot qualifications)
- 14 CFR 91.17, 91.103, 91.125, 91.151, 91.159, 91.205, 91.207, 91.209, 91.211
- 14 CFR 1.1, definition of night
- AIM 5-1: Preflight, VFR flight plans
- AIM 6-2: ELT and transponder emergency operation
- AIM 8-1: Fitness for flight, altitude, night vision
- Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge (FAA-H-8083-25C), Ch. 2, 7, 8, 10, 11, 17
- Larry Bothe, “What Do Applicants Actually Fail?”, NAFI Mentor, Jan–Feb 2018