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Wizz Air pilot interview questions, with the answers that pass

100 questions written for Wizz Air’s actual selection process. Below are 5 of them in full — the prompt, what the panel is really probing, a model answer, the red flags that fail it, and the follow-ups that come next. No account, nothing to sign.

These are our questions, written from Wizz Air’s published process and from candidate reports labelled as such. They are not leaked interview material — nobody selling you that has it either.
Question 1 of 100·technical

Define a wet runway versus a contaminated runway. Where is the line between them?

What they are really probing: A reported Wizz written-test and panel staple — they want the exact ICAO/EASA thresholds, not a vague description.

Model answer

Give the definitions crisply, then the operational consequence. A runway is wet when its surface is covered by visible moisture or water up to and including 3 mm deep, but it is not contaminated. A runway is contaminated when more than 25 percent of the surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by standing water or slush more than 3 mm deep, loose snow equivalent to that depth, or by compacted snow or ice, including wet ice. The 25 percent and 3 mm figures are the line — quote them, because vagueness here is exactly what the written test punishes. Then show you understand why the distinction exists: wet mainly degrades friction, so wet figures apply factored performance; contamination adds displacement and impingement drag on the takeoff run and drastically reduces braking, so contaminated data comes from separate certified or advisory tables, crosswind limits tighten, and a reduced V1 may apply. Close by connecting to the Global Reporting Format: since 2021 runway state is transmitted as a RWYCC code 6 to 0 with contaminant type and depth per runway third, and the crew's job is to translate that report into a performance decision before departure and again before landing. At Wizz's central and eastern European winter bases this is routine line flying, not an exotic case, which is why candidates report it appearing at every level of the assessment.

What fails this question

  • Not knowing the 3 mm / 25 percent thresholds
  • Saying wet and contaminated are treated the same for performance
  • No mention of RWYCC / Global Reporting Format when prompted about reports
  • Treating compacted snow or ice as merely 'wet'

Follow-ups they ask next

  • What is RWYCC 3 and what braking action does it correspond to?
  • How does slush affect the takeoff run compared to a dry runway?
  • Would your crosswind limit change on a contaminated runway?
Question 2 of 100·technical

Define TORA, TODA, ASDA and LDA. How do clearway and stopway change them?

What they are really probing: Declared distances are a reported Wizz written-test item — recite the four cleanly and show the arithmetic relationships.

Model answer

State each definition in one line, then the relationships. TORA — take-off run available: the length of runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off. TODA — take-off distance available: TORA plus the length of any clearway; the clearway is an obstacle-controlled area beyond the runway end, at least 500 ft wide, over which the aeroplane may complete the initial climb to screen height, and it may not extend TODA beyond 1.5 times TORA. ASDA — accelerate-stop distance available: TORA plus the length of any stopway; the stopway is a paved surface able to support the aeroplane during an aborted takeoff without structural damage, but not necessarily suitable for a normal takeoff run. LDA — landing distance available: the runway length declared available and suitable for the ground run of a landing aeroplane, which may be shorter than TORA when the threshold is displaced. Then show operational fluency: a clearway lets you certify a longer accelerate-go distance so it can raise your field-limited takeoff mass; a stopway does the same for the accelerate-stop case; and the balanced-field condition exists when the accelerate-go and accelerate-stop distances are equal, which fixes V1. Finish with a line-flying tie-in: at short LDA airfields you check the landing performance against the declared distances for the runway in use, not the physical concrete you can see on the chart.

What fails this question

  • Mixing up which distance includes clearway versus stopway
  • Saying LDA always equals TORA
  • Not knowing what a displaced threshold does to LDA
  • Unable to link the distances to V1 and takeoff mass

Follow-ups they ask next

  • Can a stopway be used for a normal takeoff run?
  • What is screen height on a dry versus wet runway?
  • How does a displaced threshold affect takeoff from that runway?
Question 3 of 100·technical

A SID requires a 3.3% climb gradient. At 180 kt groundspeed, what rate of climb do you need? Show your method.

What they are really probing: Gradient-to-ROC conversion under time pressure — the written test and the panel both drill this; the method matters as much as the number.

Model answer

Talk through the method out loud, because that is what they are grading. Step one: convert the gradient to feet per nautical mile. One nautical mile is about 6,076 ft, so 1 percent is roughly 60 ft per NM; 3.3 percent is therefore about 200 ft per NM. Step two: convert groundspeed to miles per minute. 180 kt is 3 NM per minute. Step three: multiply — 200 ft per NM times 3 NM per minute gives 600 fpm. State the answer, then show you can flex it: at 240 kt groundspeed the same gradient needs 4 times 200, so 800 fpm; a tailwind raises groundspeed and therefore the required rate, which is why gradient requirements bite on hot, heavy, tailwind departures. Add the regulatory layer to demonstrate depth: PANS-OPS assumes a minimum 3.3 percent procedure design gradient unless a higher one is published, and this is a still-air gradient over the ground, distinct from the engine-out net climb gradients of CS-25 certification — a published SID gradient is not automatically protected engine-out, which is why operators build separate engine-out escape procedures. Close with the habit: on every departure brief, note the gradient, convert it against expected groundspeed, and know before the thrust levers move whether the aircraft can meet it or whether you need a different runway, routing, or reduced mass.

What fails this question

  • Needing paper or a calculator for 3.3% at 180 kt
  • Using airspeed instead of groundspeed
  • Not knowing the ~60 ft per NM per 1% rule
  • Believing a SID gradient guarantees engine-out obstacle clearance

Follow-ups they ask next

  • Same gradient at 240 kt groundspeed — what rate now?
  • What is the standard PANS-OPS minimum design gradient?
  • How does a tailwind change the picture?
Question 4 of 100·technical

You climb at a constant Mach number below the tropopause. What happens to your TAS, and why?

What they are really probing: A reported Wizz panel spot-check — they want the chain of reasoning through temperature and the local speed of sound.

Model answer

Give the answer first, then the chain. TAS decreases. Reasoning: Mach number is TAS divided by the local speed of sound, and the local speed of sound depends only on air temperature — roughly 38.95 times the square root of the absolute temperature in kelvin. Below the tropopause, temperature falls with altitude at about 2 degrees C per 1,000 ft in ISA, so the local speed of sound falls as you climb. Holding Mach constant while the speed of sound drops means TAS must drop with it. Then complete the picture, because the follow-up is predictable: above the tropopause ISA temperature is constant at about minus 56.5 degrees C, so a constant-Mach climb there holds TAS constant. Contrast with the other climb regime: climbing at constant IAS, TAS and Mach both increase, which is why a jet climbs at a constant IAS until reaching the crossover altitude where the schedule switches to constant Mach — continuing on IAS alone would eventually push you into the high-speed buffet. If invited to go further, mention that this same logic explains why a constant-Mach descent at first shows increasing IAS. The panel is checking that your ATPL principles-of-flight and performance knowledge is connected, not memorised as isolated flashcards, so narrate the chain temperature, speed of sound, TAS explicitly rather than jumping to the answer.

What fails this question

  • Saying TAS increases or stays constant below the tropopause
  • Unable to explain that the speed of sound depends on temperature
  • Not knowing what changes above the tropopause
  • No idea what crossover altitude is when asked

Follow-ups they ask next

  • What happens to TAS at constant Mach above the tropopause?
  • What is crossover altitude and why does the climb schedule change there?
  • In a constant-IAS climb, what happens to your Mach number?
Question 5 of 100·technical

What are the aircraft approach categories, what speed defines them, and which category is the A320?

What they are really probing: Reported Wizz spot-check — Vat bands, verbatim, plus the operational consequence on minima.

Model answer

Definition first: approach category is based on Vat — the indicated airspeed at the threshold, equal to the stall speed Vso (or 1.23 times Vs1g) multiplied by 1.3, at maximum certificated landing mass. The bands: Category A below 91 kt, Category B 91 to 120 kt, Category C 121 to 140 kt, Category D 141 to 165 kt, Category E above 165 kt. The A320 family is Category C. Then give the point of it: the category determines which line of minima you use on an instrument approach chart, the size of the protected areas for circling, and the maximum speeds for each segment of the procedure — PANS-OPS designs the protection around the category's speed envelope, so flying a Cat C aircraft at Cat D speeds in a circling area erodes obstacle protection. Add the practical caveat that shows line awareness: if your actual approach speed for the day exceeds the top of your category band — for example a high Vapp due to wind additives or an overweight case — you use the minima and protection of the higher category. A sharp closing detail: some operators certify the A321 as Cat C with specific conditions, and heavier landing configurations can push individual approaches into Cat D speeds, so the discipline is to check Vapp against the band on the day rather than reciting 'we are Cat C' as a fixed fact.

What fails this question

  • Not knowing the Vat band numbers
  • Defining Vat at current mass instead of maximum certificated landing mass
  • Unable to say why the category matters operationally
  • Believing category can never change on the day

Follow-ups they ask next

  • Your Vapp today is 142 kt — which circling minima do you use?
  • What is Vat calculated from?
  • Why do circling areas depend on approach category?

The other 95 questions

Same depth as the 5 above — model answer, red flags and follow-ups on every one. You just read a twentieth of the pack; if those five were not worth your time, the rest will not be either, and you should not buy it.

State the DH and RVR limits for CAT I, CAT II and CAT III approaches.

Explain V1 and the balanced-field concept. How would you read a takeoff performance graph to find it?

Mental math, no paper: you have 120 NM to run and groundspeed is 420 kt. How many minutes to the fix? And at 360 kt?

Fuel drill: fuel flow is 2,400 kg per hour total and you have 3,600 kg above final reserve. How many minutes of holding is that? What if flow drops to 1,800 kg/h?

What rate of descent keeps you on a 3-degree glidepath at 140 kt groundspeed? Give the rule, then apply it at 160 kt.

Explain the three holding entry sectors and how you determine which entry applies.

Why are the A320's wings swept? Where does a swept wing stall first and what does the designer do about it?

Define critical Mach number and explain Mach tuck. How does a jet transport keep it benign?

What types of drag act on the aircraft, and how do they change with speed?

How do slats and flaps change the lift curve, and why does the A320 have both?

Not affiliated with Wizz Air. Process details are sourced and dated; candidate-reported detail is labelled as reported.