EASA ATPL — Performance (032) Exam Prep

Correct answer: B. 2.4%

CS-25.121(b) requires that in the second segment of the take-off flight path (gear retracted, flaps in take-off configuration, one engine inoperative), a twin-engine aircraft must achieve a minimum climb gradient of 2.4%. Three-engine aircraft require 2.7%, and four-engine aircraft require 3.0%. This is measured at V2 speed with maximum take-off thrust on the operative engines.

Correct answer: B. The maximum speed at which the pilot must take the first action to stop the aircraft within the remaining runway, or the minimum speed at which the pilot can continue the take-off and achieve the required climb

V1 is the maximum speed at which the rejected take-off action must be initiated to stop within the Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA), AND the minimum speed at which the take-off can be safely continued following an engine failure to achieve the required screen height within the Take-Off Distance Available (TODA). V1 must never be less than VMCG and never greater than VR.

Correct answer: C. It increases the take-off distance required but decreases the accelerate-stop distance

A runway upslope degrades acceleration (gravity component opposes the take-off run), which increases the take-off distance required. However, in the event of a rejected take-off, the upslope assists deceleration, which decreases the accelerate-stop distance required. Conversely, a downslope improves acceleration but hinders stopping.

Correct answer: C. At least one en-route alternate must be available within 180 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed in still air

For ETOPS operations, at least one adequate en-route alternate must be available within the approved diversion time (e.g., 180 minutes) at the approved one-engine-inoperative cruise speed in ISA and still-air conditions. The operator must verify that weather at the alternate(s) will be at or above the required minima during the period of use. More alternates may be required depending on the specific ETOPS approval and route.

Correct answer: B. To provide a safety margin between demonstrated landing distance and required landing distance

CS-25.125 requires that the demonstrated dry landing distance be multiplied by a factor of 1/0.6 = 1.67 (i.e., the landing distance required is the demonstrated distance divided by 0.6). This 67% safety factor accounts for operational variables such as approach speed variations, non-standard pilot technique, and atmospheric conditions not precisely matching certification conditions. Reverse thrust credit is generally not included in the landing distance calculation.

Correct answer: B. Take-off distance increases because the TAS for a given IAS is higher and engine thrust is reduced

Higher pressure altitude means lower air density. This affects take-off performance in two ways: (1) the TAS for a given IAS/CAS is higher, meaning the aircraft must accelerate to a higher ground speed, increasing the ground roll, and (2) engine thrust is reduced due to lower air density entering the engines. Both factors increase the take-off distance required. Aerodynamic drag is also reduced, but this does not compensate for the other effects.