Aircraft Dispatcher Written Test Questions and Answers

Correct answer: B. provisional airport.

14 CFR 119.3 defines a provisional airport as an airport approved by the Administrator for use by a certificate holder to provide service to a community when the regular airport is not available. An alternate airport is where a flight may proceed if landing at the destination becomes inadvisable.

Source: 14 CFR 119.3

Correct answer: A. 14 CFR part 91.

Operations in North Atlantic High Level Airspace are governed in 14 CFR Part 91 by 91.705 and Appendix C, which defines the airspace and its navigation performance requirements. Part 121 does not contain it, and ICAO Annex 1 deals with personnel licensing.

Source: 14 CFR Part 91

Correct answer: B. 1,000 - 1, 900 - 11/2, or 800 - 2.

14 CFR 121.637(b) says that, for an airport not listed in the operations specifications with no prescribed takeoff minimums, the takeoff weather minimums are 800-2, 900-1 1/2 or 1,000-1. The other combinations contain values not in the rule.

Source: 14 CFR 121.637(b)

Correct answer: C. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.

14 CFR 121.629(b) prohibits takeoff when frost, ice or snow is adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets or other critical surfaces, so the snow must be removed. Adding speed or polishing residue does not satisfy the clean-aircraft rule for snow.

Source: 14 CFR 121.629(b)

Correct answer: A. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

14 CFR 121.565 requires landing at the nearest suitable airport after an engine failure, except that on an airplane with three or more engines, if only one engine has failed, the pilot in command may proceed to another airport after considering whether doing so is as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. Dispatcher approval is not the criterion.

Source: 14 CFR 121.565

Correct answer: A. dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.

14 CFR 121.557(c) says that when an aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency, the dispatcher must send a written report within 10 days to the Administrator through the certificate holder's operations manager. The PIC reports emergencies the PIC declares.

Source: 14 CFR 121.557(c)

Correct answer: C. 10,000 feet.

14 CFR 121.542 defines critical phases of flight as ground operations, takeoff, landing and all flight operations below 10,000 feet except cruise, and during them non-safety-related activities are prohibited (sterile cockpit).

Source: 14 CFR 121.542

Correct answer: A. For flights at or above FL 180.

14 CFR 121.349 (like 91.205(e)) requires approved DME or a suitable RNAV system when VOR navigation equipment is required and the airplane is operated at or above FL 180 (24,000 feet in 91.205(e) for Part 91). It is not a general requirement whenever VOR is required or for all Class E IFR.

Source: 14 CFR 121.349

Correct answer: C. Certificate holder's manual.

14 CFR 121.397 requires the certificate holder to assign emergency functions to each crewmember category and to show them in the certificate holder's manual (whose contents are listed in 121.135). The airplane flight manual does not assign crew duties.

Source: 14 CFR 121.397

Correct answer: C. exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

14 CFR 1.1 defines operational control as the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight. It is not the same as acting as pilot in command or a crewmember's specific duties.

Source: 14 CFR 1.1

Correct answer: C. necessary to land at next destination airport or alternate airport.

Under 14 CFR 117.19(b), if unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff, the pilot in command and certificate holder may extend the flight duty period as necessary to land safely at the next destination airport or alternate airport. The 2-hour extension applies to circumstances before takeoff.

Source: 14 CFR 117.19(b)

Correct answer: A. at all times unless otherwise authorized by the FAA or directed by ATC.

14 CFR 91.225(f) requires each person operating an aircraft equipped with ADS-B Out to operate it in transmit mode at all times, unless otherwise authorized by the FAA when the aircraft is performing sensitive operations or directed by ATC. It is not limited to Class B/C or to commercial flights.

Source: 14 CFR 91.225(f)

Correct answer: A. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.

49 CFR 830.2 defines a serious injury as one that, among other criteria, requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received. The 72-hour/10-day and 10-day options are not in the definition.

Correct answer: A. In a break in the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located.

The Aviation Weather Handbook explains that jet streams are found in breaks in the tropopause, where strong horizontal temperature gradients intensify the winds. They are not in the stratosphere's low-pressure systems, and they are segmented rather than a single continuous band.

Source: Aviation Weather Handbook

Correct answer: B. hinder lift production to a point where takeoff will be impossible.

Even a thin layer of frost, ice or snow roughens the wing enough to reduce lift and increase drag and stall speed, possibly to the point where takeoff is impossible (AC 91-74B). It never improves takeoff performance or shortens the ground run.

Source: AC 91-74B

Correct answer: C. Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream.

The Aviation Weather Handbook notes that cirriform clouds associated with the jet stream typically lie on its equatorial side, where rising air feeds high-level moisture. The cloud band is not on the polar side, and a cumulonimbus line is a frontal feature, not a jet stream indicator.

Source: Aviation Weather Handbook

Correct answer: B. Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate.

The tropopause is the boundary where the temperature lapse rate changes abruptly, from decreasing with height in the troposphere to nearly constant above it. Winds and turbulence are often strong near it, and thunderstorm tops can penetrate it.

Correct answer: B. Embedded thunderstorms.

When convective clouds grow up through a stratus layer they are hidden within it, producing embedded thunderstorms that a pilot in IMC cannot see and avoid visually. Freezing rain comes from a warm layer aloft, and clear air turbulence occurs outside clouds.

Correct answer: A. Ahead of a cold front.

Squall lines most often develop in moist, unstable air ahead of a cold front, sometimes well ahead of it. They are not characteristic of occluded or stationary fronts.

Correct answer: C. are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only.

FAA ground deicing guidance explains that freezing point depressant fluids are intended to remove contamination and provide limited protection (holdover time) on the ground only; they are designed to flow off during the takeoff roll and provide no in-flight ice protection. Some fluids can slightly degrade takeoff performance.

Correct answer: A. Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

14 CFR 121.617(a) requires a takeoff alternate when departure weather is below landing minimums; for airplanes with three or more engines it must be within 2 hours of the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. One hour applies to two-engine airplanes.

Source: 14 CFR 121.617(a)

Correct answer: C. Not more than 1 hour.

Under 14 CFR 121.631, a domestic flight that remains on the ground at an intermediate airport for more than 1 hour must be redispatched before it continues, so the delay without redispatch may not exceed 1 hour. The 6-hour figure applies to flag operations.

Source: 14 CFR 121.631

Correct answer: B. The aircraft dispatcher.

14 CFR 121.601 requires the aircraft dispatcher to provide the pilot in command with available weather reports and forecasts and information about irregularities of navigation facilities, communication and airports that may affect the safety of the flight. ATC and the director of operations do not have that regulatory duty.

Source: 14 CFR 121.601

Correct answer: C. 10 consecutive hours of duty.

14 CFR 121.465 says a certificate holder may not schedule a dispatcher for more than 10 consecutive hours of duty (with rest requirements and limited exceptions). The 8-hour and 10-in-24 figures are not the rule.

Source: 14 CFR 121.465

Correct answer: A. 1/4 SM.

The RVR conversion table in 14 CFR 91.175(h) lists RVR 1,600 feet as equivalent to 1/4 statute mile, so 1/4 SM ground visibility may be used when RVR 16 is not reported. 1/2 mile corresponds to RVR 2,400 and 3/4 mile to RVR 4,000.

Source: 14 CFR 91.175(h)

Correct answer: B. The route filed in the flight plan.

Under 14 CFR 91.185(c)(1), after lost communications in IFR conditions the pilot flies the route assigned, or if vectored direct to the fix, or the route ATC advised to expect; in the absence of those, the route filed in the flight plan. Diverting to the alternate or returning off-airway is not the prescribed route.

Source: 14 CFR 91.185(c)(1)

Correct answer: C. the NAVAIDS used for the final approach are unmonitored.

Approach charts may show alternate minimums as 'NA' because of unmonitored navigation facilities used for the approach or the absence of weather reporting, which disqualifies the airport as an alternate for that procedure. Having AWOS-3 supports alternate use, and nearby special use airspace is not a disqualifier.

Correct answer: C. Clearway.

14 CFR 1.1 defines a clearway as an area beyond the runway, free of obstructions, over which an airplane may make part of its initial climb, and which may be used in calculating turbine-powered airplane takeoff distance. A stopway is a surface for stopping during an aborted takeoff.

Source: 14 CFR 1.1

Correct answer: B. V1

V1 is the takeoff decision speed: the maximum speed at which the pilot can begin to abort the takeoff and still stop within the accelerate-stop distance (and the minimum speed to continue after an engine failure). V2 is the takeoff safety speed and VREF the landing reference speed.

Correct answer: C. A sudden increase in wind speed of at least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more for 1 minute or longer.

A squall (SQ) is defined as a sudden increase in wind speed of at least 16 knots, with the speed rising to 22 knots or more and lasting at least 1 minute. The other definitions do not match the squall criteria; the variations in direction and peak/lull describe variable or gusty winds.

Correct answer: B. avoid severe weather.

FAA guidance says airborne weather radar is an aid for avoiding severe weather, not for penetrating it; it detects precipitation, not turbulence, so it cannot guarantee avoidance of turbulence and hail, and flying between cells is discouraged.

Correct answer: B. the three components of initial indoctrination awareness, recurrent practice and feedback, and continual reinforcement.

AC 120-51 describes CRM training as three components: initial indoctrination and awareness, recurrent practice and feedback, and continuing reinforcement. The other options invent two- or five-component structures.

Source: AC 120-51

Correct answer: A. Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases.

AIM 8-1-1 explains that alcohol impairs the body's functions and that its effects are magnified at altitude, where even small amounts reduce tolerance to hypoxia. Coffee does not counteract alcohol, and small amounts impair rather than improve judgment.

Source: AIM 8-1-1

Correct answer: C. Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.

Ground spoilers deploy on landing to destroy (dump) wing lift, putting the airplane's weight on the wheels for effective braking and adding drag. Roll control uses flight spoilers or ailerons, and increasing descent rate in flight uses speed brakes.

Correct answer: C. Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.

With the CG aft, the tail needs less downward force, so the wing carries less total load: stall speed is lower and cruise speed higher, but longitudinal stability is reduced (PHAK Chapter 10). A forward CG gives the opposite: higher stall speed, lower cruise speed, more stability.

Source: PHAK Chapter 10