ATP Written Test Questions and Answers

Correct answer: A. alternate weather minima specified in the operation specifications at the time of arrival.

14 CFR 121.625 allows an airport to be listed as an alternate in the dispatch or flight release only if forecasts indicate conditions will be at or above the alternate weather minimums specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications for that airport when the flight arrives. The lowest approach minima apply to the destination, not the alternate, and the 1-hour window is a Part 91 destination concept.

Source: 14 CFR 121.625ACS AA.I.G.K4

Correct answer: B. When meteorological conditions permit, regardless of flight rules.

14 CFR 91.113(b) says that when weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is conducted under IFR or VFR, each pilot must maintain vigilance to see and avoid other aircraft. IFR does not transfer that responsibility to ATC, and it exists even without a visual separation instruction.

Source: 14 CFR 91.113(b)ACS AA.VI.C.K3

Correct answer: A. ATP certificate with appropriate type rating.

14 CFR 121.436(b) requires a second in command in Part 121 operations to hold an airline transport pilot certificate (which may be a restricted-privileges ATP) and an aircraft type rating for the aircraft being flown. There is no separate 'SIC type rating' option in this rule, and the medical class for a Part 121 SIC is not third class.

Source: 14 CFR 121.436(b)ACS AA.I.G.K4

Correct answer: A. Operations Specifications.

An air carrier's authority to use special instrument approach procedures is granted in its operations specifications (14 CFR 119.49, and the Instrument Procedures Handbook). Training specifications and compliance statements do not authorize approach procedures.

Source: 14 CFR 119.49 · Instrument Procedures HandbookACS AA.I.E.K14

Correct answer: A. not depart until the weather improves.

Under 14 CFR 121.637(b), when no takeoff minimums are prescribed for an airport not listed in the operations specifications, the takeoff minimums are 800-2, 900-1 1/2 or 1,000-1. A 900-foot ceiling with 1 mile visibility meets none of them, so the flight may not depart until the weather improves; a departure alternate does not replace takeoff minimums.

Source: 14 CFR 121.637(b)ACS AA.I.G.K4

Correct answer: B. unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff.

Under 14 CFR 117.11(b), a flightcrew member may exceed the maximum flight time limits if unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff that are beyond the certificate holder's control (with reporting requirements). Known delays before takeoff do not qualify, and a following rest period does not authorize exceeding the limits.

Source: 14 CFR 117.11(b)ACS AA.I.G.K3

Correct answer: C. Pilot in command and aircraft dispatcher.

14 CFR 121.533(b) makes the pilot in command and the aircraft dispatcher jointly responsible for the preflight planning, delay and dispatch release of a domestic flight. The director of operations and chief pilot have operational control roles but not this joint responsibility.

Source: 14 CFR 121.533(b)ACS AA.I.G.K4

Correct answer: A. at all times unless otherwise authorized by the FAA or directed by ATC.

14 CFR 91.225(f) requires each person operating an aircraft equipped with ADS-B Out to operate it in transmit mode at all times, unless otherwise authorized by the FAA when the aircraft is performing sensitive operations or directed by ATC. It is not limited to Class B/C or to commercial flights.

Source: 14 CFR 91.225(f)ACS AA.I.G.K2

Correct answer: C. During cruise flight.

14 CFR 121.542 prohibits non-essential activities, including non-essential conversation, during critical phases of flight, which include all operations below 10,000 feet except cruise flight. So cruise flight below 10,000 feet is the exception; VMC or being outside the final approach fix is not.

Source: 14 CFR 121.542ACS AA.I.G.K4

Correct answer: B. The air carrier's policy and procedures manual.

14 CFR 121.306 prohibits operating portable electronic devices on a Part 121 aircraft unless the certificate holder has determined they will not cause interference, so crews follow the air carrier's policy and procedures manual. The flight manual and the device's own manual do not grant that approval.

Source: 14 CFR 121.306ACS AA.I.E.K11

Correct answer: B. File a report through the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP).

ASAP (AC 120-66) lets air carrier employees voluntarily report safety events, including possible regulatory deviations such as one caused by following an ATC instruction, with enforcement incentives. VDRP is for the certificate holder's own disclosures, and FOQA analyzes flight data, not individual reports.

Source: AC 120-66ACS AA.I.E.K13

Correct answer: C. Tingling sensations.

Hyperventilation, excessive breathing that lowers carbon dioxide in the blood, commonly produces tingling sensations, dizziness and visual impairment (PHAK Chapter 17). It increases, not decreases, the breathing rate.

Source: PHAK Chapter 17ACS AA.I.F.K1b

Correct answer: B. Insufficient partial pressure of the inhaled oxygen.

Air at altitude still contains about 21 percent oxygen; hypoxic hypoxia results from the lower partial pressure of inhaled oxygen, which reduces how much oxygen passes into the blood (PHAK Chapter 17). The percentage of oxygen does not change, and the balance of oxygen and CO2 describes hyperventilation.

Source: PHAK Chapter 17ACS AA.I.F.K1a

Correct answer: A. can severely impair a person for more than 8 hours.

AIM 8-1-1 warns that even small amounts of alcohol impair judgment and that the effects can last well beyond 8 hours, depending on the amount consumed, which is why the 8-hour rule is a minimum. Small amounts do affect decision-making.

Source: AIM 8-1-1ACS AA.I.F.K2

Correct answer: A. pitching up.

AIM 8-1-5 notes that penetration of fog can create an illusion of pitching up; a pilot who does not recognize it will often steepen the approach, quite abruptly. It is not an illusion of lower altitude or of turning.

Source: AIM 8-1-5ACS AA.I.F.K1k

Correct answer: A. 8.

14 CFR 91.17(a)(1) prohibits acting or attempting to act as a crewmember within 8 hours after consuming any alcoholic beverage. Many operators set longer limits, but the Part 91 minimum is 8 hours.

Source: 14 CFR 91.17(a)(1)ACS AA.I.G.K2

Correct answer: A. Upon descent and is aggravated by upper respiratory infection.

During climb the expanding air in the middle ear escapes easily through the eustachian tube, but during descent air must work its way back in; if the tube is swollen, as with a cold or upper respiratory infection, the ear blocks. That is why ear block is most likely on descent (PHAK Chapter 17).

Source: PHAK Chapter 17ACS AA.I.F.K1c

Correct answer: A. Loss of accuracy and smoothness in control movements.

PHAK Chapter 17 lists among the effects of acute fatigue a loss of accuracy and smoothness in control movements, along with impaired judgment and slower reactions. Fatigue does not sharpen peripheral vision, and euphoria is a hypoxia symptom.

Source: PHAK Chapter 17ACS AA.I.F.K1h

Correct answer: A. Lack of sleep.

PHAK lists fatigue and lack of sleep among physiological stressors that degrade judgment and decision-making. A lack of high workload or of motivation is not the stressor described.

Source: PHAK (FAA-H-8083-25)ACS AA.I.F.K3

Correct answer: A. sufficient oxygen may not reach the cells in the body.

PHAK notes that donating blood reduces the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity for several weeks (hypemic, or anemic, hypoxia), so enough oxygen may not reach the body's cells. It does not change the oxygen available in the lungs, and reduced ability of tissues to use oxygen is histotoxic hypoxia.

Source: PHAK (FAA-H-8083-25)ACS AA.I.F.K1a

Correct answer: A. Droplets that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below +5°C.

AC 91-74B lists as SLD cues visible rain at temperatures below freezing and droplets that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below about +5 degrees C, plus ice forming aft of the protected areas. Ice on the active part of the boot or on the propeller hub is not the SLD indicator.

Source: AC 91-74BACS AA.I.C.K3i

Correct answer: B. These conditions could produce radiation fog.

After rain the ground is moist; clearing skies, a temperature equal to the dewpoint (10/10) and light wind at daybreak are the classic conditions for radiation fog (PHAK Chapter 12). It normally burns off as the day warms rather than deepening.

Source: PHAK Chapter 12ACS AA.I.C.K3j

Correct answer: C. an unstable air mass.

Clouds with extensive vertical development (towering cumulus, cumulonimbus) form when air lifted by the terrain keeps rising on its own, the mark of an unstable air mass (PHAK Chapter 12). Stable air produces layered clouds.

Source: PHAK Chapter 12ACS AA.I.C.K3f

Correct answer: C. cloud types and the type of precipitation.

PHAK Chapter 12 explains that cloud types and precipitation reveal stability: cumuliform clouds with showers indicate unstable air, stratiform clouds with steady precipitation stable air. The dry adiabatic rate is a constant, and tropopause height does not indicate the stability of a given air mass.

Source: PHAK Chapter 12ACS AA.I.C.K3a

Correct answer: A. possible turbulence.

Cumulus clouds form in rising convective currents, so they often indicate turbulence at and below their bases (PHAK Chapter 12). An inversion suppresses them, and the dry adiabatic rate is a physical constant, not something a cloud indicates.

Source: PHAK Chapter 12ACS AA.I.C.K3f

Correct answer: A. on or ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air.

A squall line is a non-frontal band of thunderstorms that most often forms on or ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air. It is not typical of warm-front passage, and rising pressure follows rather than accompanies it.

ACS AA.I.C.K3h

Correct answer: B. Clear air turbulence associated with the jet stream.

The jet stream is found near breaks in the tropopause, and strong wind shear there produces clear air turbulence. The tropopause is marked by an abrupt change in lapse rate (to nearly constant temperature above), not a constant lapse rate, and deflection to the right is the Coriolis effect.

ACS AA.I.C.K3g

Correct answer: C. Winter.

Jet streams are strongest in winter, when the temperature contrast between polar and tropical air is greatest; they also shift farther south then. They weaken and move north in summer.

ACS AA.I.C.K3e

Correct answer: B. particularly during approach and landing to prevent CFIT.

AC 120-71 stresses that crew monitoring is especially critical during approach and landing, where most CFIT and loss-of-control accidents occur, and that the pilot monitoring must actively track flight path, energy and automation modes. It is not limited to cruise or to RNAV departures.

Source: AC 120-71ACS AA.I.E.K12

Correct answer: A. recognize and mitigate hazards.

AC 120-51 describes CRM as using all available resources (people, equipment and information) to achieve safe operations, including recognizing and mitigating hazards and errors. It is not about regulatory currency, and it expands rather than reduces the use of outside resources.

Source: AC 120-51ACS AA.I.E.K12

Correct answer: B. employee groups beyond the flightcrew.

AC 120-51 recommends extending CRM training beyond the flight crew to other groups such as flight attendants, dispatchers and maintenance, so the whole operations team works as a system. Seat-dependent checklists and failure scenarios are elements of flight crew training rather than this broadening.

Source: AC 120-51ACS AA.I.E.K12

Correct answer: B. A tendency to be impulsive rather than disciplined, especially in decision- making.

PHAK Chapter 2 describes traits common to accident-prone pilots, including disdain toward rules, a strong correlation between traffic violations and flying mishaps, and a tendency to be impulsive rather than disciplined in decision-making. Respect for rules and a low correlation with violations are the opposite.

Source: PHAK Chapter 2ACS AA.I.F.K3

Correct answer: C. Captain.

The captain, as pilot in command, is the final authority for the operation (91.3, 121.533(e)) and, as AC 120-51 describes, sets the tone and pace of the flight deck and is accountable for the outcome of decisions. The first officer contributes but does not carry that accountability.

Source: AC 120-51ACS AA.I.E.K11

Correct answer: A. fail to monitor automated navigation systems.

FAA guidance on monitoring warns that risk increases when crews fail to monitor automated navigation and flight systems, because mode errors and deviations go unnoticed. Taking time to verify automation and cross-checking each other's actions reduce risk.

ACS AA.I.E.K2

Correct answer: B. Likelihood and severity.

The FAA's risk assessment approach rates each hazard by its likelihood (probability) and the severity of its consequences, often in a risk matrix. Convenience, effort, time and cost are not the basic risk considerations.

ACS AA.I.F.K3

Correct answer: C. Reducing the angle of attack.

The FAA's stall recovery guidance (AFH Chapter 5, AC 120-109) makes reducing the angle of attack the first and essential action, whatever the phase of flight. Engaging the autopilot or changing flaps does not break the stall.

Source: AC 120-109ACS AA.V.C.K5

Correct answer: B. The design delays the onset of compressibility.

Sweeping the wing reduces the component of airflow perpendicular to the leading edge, which raises the critical Mach number and delays the onset of compressibility effects (Airplane Flying Handbook Chapter 15). Shock-induced separation is a problem, not an advantage, and swept wings tend to stall at the tips, not the root.

Source: Airplane Flying HandbookACS AA.I.B.K4

Correct answer: B. Decreased control surface effectiveness.

Above critical Mach number, shock waves form on the wing and can cause flow separation over the control surfaces, reducing their effectiveness, along with high-speed buffet and possible Mach tuck (Airplane Flying Handbook Chapter 15). Efficiency decreases, and the buffet encountered is high-speed, not low-speed.

Source: Airplane Flying HandbookACS AA.I.B.K4

Correct answer: C. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.

Rate of turn increases and radius decreases with a steeper bank and with a lower airspeed, so steepening the bank while slowing down does both (PHAK Chapter 5). Increasing airspeed enlarges the radius and lowers the rate.

Source: PHAK Chapter 5ACS AA.IV.A.K2e

Correct answer: C. An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.

PHAK Chapter 5 explains that leaving ground effect restores the full wingtip vortices and downwash, so induced drag increases and a higher angle of attack is needed for the same lift. Parasite drag is not reduced, and stability does not increase.

Source: PHAK Chapter 5ACS AA.I.B.K4

Correct answer: B. Increases the camber and CL-MAX.

Leading-edge slats increase the effective camber of the wing and direct high-energy air over the upper surface, delaying separation so the wing reaches a higher maximum lift coefficient (CL-MAX) at a higher angle of attack. They delay, not hasten, airflow separation.

ACS AA.I.A.K12

Correct answer: B. It remains relatively unchanged throughout the climb.

Calibrated stall speed depends on the dynamic pressure needed to support the airplane, which the airspeed indicator measures, so it remains relatively unchanged with altitude; true stall speed increases. Only at very high altitudes do compressibility effects raise it somewhat.

ACS AA.V.B.K1

Correct answer: A. 3° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.

AIM 5-3-8 says turns in holding are made at 3 degrees per second, 30 degrees bank, or 25 degrees bank if a flight director system is used, whichever requires the least bank. With a flight director that is 3 degrees per second or 25 degrees, whichever is less.

Source: AIM 5-3-8ACS AA.VI.J.K1

Correct answer: A. 250 knots.

AIM 4-4-12 says ATC will not assign speeds below 250 knots to turbojets operating at or above FL240 (unless the pilot agrees). 210 knots is the minimum below 10,000 feet more than 20 miles from the airport, and 170 knots applies within 20 miles.

Source: AIM 4-4-12ACS AA.VI.C.K3

Correct answer: A. By subtracting 100 from the speed and adding 50 to the coded direction.

In the winds and temperatures aloft forecast, speeds of 100 to 199 knots are coded by adding 50 to the two-digit direction and subtracting 100 from the speed; for example 7315 means 230 degrees at 115 knots. There is no three-digit speed field or plain-language annotation.

ACS AA.I.C.K2

Correct answer: B. Thunderstorm activity 5-10 miles from the airport's runway complex.

The group in effect at 0900Z is FM160900 34010KT P6SM VCTS BKN035CB: wind from 340 at 10 knots and thunderstorms in the vicinity, which in a TAF means 5 to 10 statute miles from the airport. The wind is northerly, not southerly, and the showers with SCT025/BKN200 belong to the earlier FM160600 group.

ACS AA.I.C.K2

Correct answer: B. It could be difficult or impossible to flare for landing.

With the CG ahead of the forward limit the airplane is nose-heavy, and the elevator may not have enough authority to raise the nose for the flare, so landing can be difficult or impossible (PHAK Chapter 10). Control forces become heavier, not lighter, and difficult stall recovery is an aft-CG problem.

Source: PHAK Chapter 10ACS AA.I.B.K5

Correct answer: C. It could be impossible to recover from a stall.

With the CG behind the aft limit the airplane becomes less stable, control forces get light, and PHAK warns that it may be difficult or impossible to recover from a stall or spin. Heavy control forces and difficulty flaring are forward-CG problems.

Source: PHAK (FAA-H-8083-25)ACS AA.I.B.K5

Correct answer: B. a thorough understanding of how the autopilot interacts with other systems.

The Advanced Avionics Handbook says proper automation management requires a thorough understanding of how the autopilot interacts with the other systems (navigation sources, flight director, modes). Relying on the FMS while attention wanders, or not monitoring after programming, are the pitfalls it warns against.

Source: Advanced Avionics HandbookACS AA.I.F.K3

Correct answer: C. pitot static system has malfunctioned.

In a constant-rate climb, airspeed should stay constant; if it increases along with altitude, the pitot system is likely blocked (for example by ice above the freezing level), so the trapped pressure makes the airspeed indicator act like an altimeter. An unusual attitude would not produce a climb with increasing airspeed at constant power, and gyro failure does not affect these instruments.

ACS AA.VII.A.K6

Correct answer: A. When landing on a wet runway that is covered in rubber from previous landings.

Hydroplaning can occur on a wet runway, and rubber deposits in the touchdown zone make the surface smoother and more prone to viscous and reverted-rubber hydroplaning. Grooved runways with only a trace of water resist hydroplaning, and lapse rate or rising steam has nothing to do with it.

ACS AA.III.B.R1

Correct answer: C. Maximum weight on main wheels.

Wheel braking depends on the weight carried by the wheels, so it is most effective with maximum weight on the main wheels, after the nose is lowered and spoilers are deployed to kill lift. At or just after touchdown the wings still carry much of the weight.

ACS AA.I.A.K1

Correct answer: A. 23,611 pounds.

Pallet area is 95.2 x 140.1 = 13,337.5 square inches, or 92.62 square feet. At 260 pounds per square foot the floor can take 92.62 x 260 = 24,081 pounds in total; subtracting the pallet (350) and tiedowns (120) leaves 23,611 pounds of cargo.

ACS AA.I.B.K3e

Correct answer: B. 37,500 lbs.

Payload is limited first by maximum zero fuel weight: 138,000 - 100,500 = 37,500 pounds. With 40,000 pounds of fuel the takeoff weight is 178,000 pounds, below the 184,200-pound limit, so zero fuel weight is the limiting factor. 43,700 would exceed MZFW, and 29,700 is not a limit here.

ACS AA.I.B.K3e

Correct answer: C. When the maximum rate of climb and the maximum angle of climb speeds converge.

As altitude increases, VX rises and VY falls until they meet at the absolute ceiling, where the airplane can no longer climb (PHAK Chapter 11). 100 feet per minute defines the service ceiling, not the absolute ceiling.

Source: PHAK Chapter 11ACS AA.I.B.K2c

Correct answer: A. 19 knots.

The wind from 290 degrees is 40 degrees off the runway heading of 330. The headwind component is 25 x cos 40 = 25 x 0.77 = about 19 knots (the crosswind is about 16 knots). 25 knots would be a wind straight down the runway.

ACS AA.III.A.K1

Correct answer: A. relies on ASDE-X/Airport Surface Surveillance Capability (ASSC).

AIM 2-1-6 explains that RWSL is a fully automated system driven by surface and terminal surveillance (ASDE-X or ASSC) that illuminates runway entrance and takeoff hold lights. It is independent of ATC input, and pilots must still follow ATC instructions and report go-arounds as usual.

Source: AIM 2-1-6ACS AA.II.C.K3

Correct answer: A. a GPS/WAAS receiver approved for an LPV approach by the AFM.

LPV minima require a WAAS-capable GPS receiver approved for LPV approaches in the airplane flight manual or supplement (AIM 1-1-18). A TSO-C129 (non-WAAS) receiver can fly only LNAV, and RNP 0.5 is not the LPV requirement.

Source: AIM 1-1-18ACS AA.VI.E.K2

Correct answer: A. Lack of airflow due to insufficient turbine rpm.

A hot start occurs when the engine lights but exhaust temperature exceeds limits, typically because there is too little airflow through the engine (insufficient rpm from the starter) or too much fuel. Too little fuel would cause a failed or slow start, and a compressor airflow imbalance is associated with stalls.

ACS AA.I.A.K2

Correct answer: B. When the aircraft altitude places it in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.

AIM 4-1-16 says a safety alert is issued when ATC becomes aware that an aircraft is at an altitude that places it in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions or other aircraft. Unstable approaches and separation changes are not safety alert triggers.

Source: AIM 4-1-16ACS AA.VI.C.K3