Commercial Pilot Written Test Questions and Answers

Correct answer: C. obtain weather reports, forecasts, and fuel requirements for the flight.

14 CFR 91.103(a) requires the pilot in command, for any flight not in the vicinity of an airport, to become familiar with weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, and alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed as planned. Knowing every instrument approach is not required for a VFR flight, and a VFR flight plan does not require an alternate airport.

Source: 14 CFR 91.103(a)ACS CA.I.C.K3

Correct answer: B. Aerial application and aerial photography.

14 CFR 119.1(e) lists operations that do not require a Part 119 certificate, including crop dusting and other agricultural operations and aerial photography or survey, so a commercial pilot may be paid for them under 61.133. On-demand passenger or cargo flights for compensation are air carrier or commercial operations that require a Part 119 certificate (and Part 135).

Source: 14 CFR 119.1(e)ACS CA.I.A.K2

Correct answer: B. depart because the ELT is within the inspection requirements.

14 CFR 91.207(d) requires the ELT to be inspected within 12 calendar months after the last inspection. An inspection 11 calendar months ago is still current, so you may depart; no special flight permit or new inspection is needed yet.

Source: 14 CFR 91.207(d)ACS CA.I.B.K1b

Correct answer: B. You must apply for and receive a Letter of Authorization from a Flight Standards District Office.

Nonstop commercial air tours that begin and end at the same airport within 25 statute miles are excepted from Part 119 only if conducted under a Letter of Authorization issued under 14 CFR 91.147, obtained from the local Flight Standards District Office (119.1(e)(2)). A commercial certificate and the right rating are not enough on their own, and there is no exemption process for night passenger tours within 50 miles.

Source: 14 CFR 91.147ACS CA.I.A.K2

Correct answer: C. You cancel the flight and have the aircraft scheduled for maintenance.

14 CFR 39.7 says anyone who operates a product that does not meet the requirements of an applicable airworthiness directive is in violation, and 91.403(a) makes the owner or operator responsible for keeping the aircraft airworthy, including AD compliance. An aircraft with an overdue AD is not airworthy, so the flight must be cancelled and the AD accomplished; there is no general 10-hour allowance to overfly an AD unless the AD itself grants one.

Source: 14 CFR 39.7ACS CA.I.B.K1c

Correct answer: C. Received and logged ground and flight training in a high performance airplane and a received a logbook endorsement.

14 CFR 61.31(f) requires a pilot acting as PIC of a high-performance airplane (engine of more than 200 horsepower) to have received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane and to hold a one-time logbook endorsement. Training in a retractable-gear, controllable-pitch airplane is the complex endorsement (61.31(e)), and SIC time is not an alternative.

Source: 14 CFR 61.31(f)ACS CA.I.A.K1

Correct answer: C. Multi-engine land airplane.

Under 14 CFR 61.57(a)(1), the three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days must be made in an aircraft of the same category, class and (if required) type as the one used to carry passengers. Landings in multi-engine land airplanes satisfy the requirement only for multi-engine land airplanes, not for single-engine land.

Source: 14 CFR 61.57(a)(1)ACS CA.I.A.K1

Correct answer: C. Within Class G airspace 25 nautical miles from a Class B airport.

14 CFR 91.225(d)(2) requires ADS-B Out within 30 nautical miles of the airports in appendix D, section 1 (the Class B primary airports), from the surface up to 10,000 feet MSL, whatever the class of airspace, so Class G within 25 NM of a Class B airport is included. Class E below a Class C shelf is not covered, and the 'above the ceiling' rule applies to Class B and Class C, not Class D.

Source: 14 CFR 91.225(d)(2)ACS CA.I.E.K1

Correct answer: A. must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office.

49 CFR 830.5(a)(1) requires the operator to notify the NTSB immediately, by the most expeditious means, of a flight control system malfunction or failure, even if there was no accident. A broken elevator cable that caused an aborted takeoff is exactly that serious incident; the 10-day report applies to written accident reports, and a NASA report is voluntary.

ACS CA.III.A.K8

Correct answer: C. where often invisible hazards exist.

AIM 3-4-3 describes restricted areas as airspace that denotes the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft, such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery or guided missiles. Flight into R-2531 is not forbidden at all times (it may be entered when not active or with permission of the controlling agency), and restricted areas are not reserved for IFR aircraft.

Source: AIM 3-4-3ACS CA.I.E.K3

Correct answer: A. Exercise extreme caution while in the boundaries of the MOA.

AIM 3-4-5 says VFR pilots may fly through an active MOA but should exercise extreme caution, and are encouraged to contact the controlling agency or FSS for traffic advisories. MOAs are not prohibited to VFR or IFR traffic, and 121.5 is the emergency frequency, not a way to talk to the military aircraft in the MOA.

Source: AIM 3-4-5ACS CA.I.E.K3

Correct answer: B. are not required to contact any ATC facilities if you do not enter the Class C Airspace

Rio Linda (L36, elevation 46 feet) lies under the outer shelf of the Sacramento International Class C, labeled 41 over 16, whose floor is 1,600 feet MSL. Climbing out to the northwest at 1,000 feet AGL (about 1,050 feet MSL) keeps you below the Class C, so 14 CFR 91.130 does not require any contact. McClellan (MCC) has magenta data, a non-towered field with a CTAF, so there is no McClellan tower to call, and SMF tower is only for its surface area.

Source: 14 CFR 91.130ACS CA.I.E.K1

Correct answer: B. 5 SM.

The 14 CFR 91.155(a) table requires 5 statute miles of flight visibility in Class E airspace at or above 10,000 feet MSL, with 1,000 feet above and below and 1 statute mile horizontal from clouds. 3 statute miles applies below 10,000 feet MSL, and 1 statute mile belongs to Class G at low altitude; visibility is expressed in statute miles, not nautical miles.

Source: 14 CFR 91.155(a)ACS CA.I.E.K1

Correct answer: A. You must remain outside Class B airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance.

14 CFR 91.131(a)(1) requires an ATC clearance before operating in Class B airspace; hearing your call sign followed by 'standby' establishes communication but is not a clearance, so you must stay outside until you hear 'cleared into the Class B airspace'. Being ADS-B equipped does not replace the clearance.

Source: 14 CFR 91.131(a)(1)ACS CA.I.E.K1

Correct answer: C. Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training.

AIM 3-4-6 says alert areas are depicted to inform pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity; pilots should be particularly alert when flying in them. No contact with a controlling agency or waiver is needed to transit an alert area; all activity in it is conducted under the normal rules.

Source: AIM 3-4-6ACS CA.I.E.K3

Correct answer: C. are momentarily increased and lift returns to a steady state during the climb.

PHAK Chapter 5 explains that when the pilot raises the nose to enter a climb, angle of attack and lift momentarily increase; once the climb is established at constant airspeed, the angle of attack and lift return to about their level-flight values, with the extra power supplying the energy to climb. Lift does not stay greater than weight in a steady climb.

Source: PHAK Chapter 5ACS CA.I.F.K3

Correct answer: A. The total load on the aircraft's structure is two times its weight.

Load factor is the ratio of the total load the wings support to the airplane's weight; PHAK Chapter 5 shows that a level 60-degree bank produces 2 Gs, so the structure carries twice the airplane's weight. That is within the normal-category limit of 3.8 Gs, and it is not a gust factor.

Source: PHAK Chapter 5ACS CA.I.F.K3

Correct answer: C. VNE.

PHAK Chapter 8 defines VNE (the red line) as the speed that must never be exceeded because operating above it, even in smooth air, may cause structural damage or failure. Flight between VNO and VNE (yellow arc) is permitted only in smooth air, and VA concerns full control deflections and turbulence, not smooth-air structural failure.

Source: PHAK Chapter 8ACS CA.I.F.R2

Correct answer: C. Aircraft control difficulties.

Beyond the critical Mach number, local airflow over the wing goes supersonic and forms shock waves; the FAA handbooks describe the resulting buffet, loss of control effectiveness and Mach tuck, all of which make the aircraft difficult to control. Drag rises sharply rather than decreasing, and a propeller stall is not the consequence of exceeding the airframe's critical Mach number.

ACS CA.I.F.K3

Correct answer: B. exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions.

VORs and airway intersections concentrate traffic, because aircraft from many directions navigate to the same point; FAA collision-avoidance guidance (AC 90-48D, AIM 4-4-15) calls for sustained vigilance there. Ninety-degree clearing turns are a technique before maneuvers or climbs, not a VOR rule, and there is no requirement to pass the station to the right of the radial.

Source: AC 90-48D · AIM 4-4-15ACS CA.VI.A.R1

Correct answer: B. overshooting the intended landing spot and a faster groundspeed at touchdown.

With a tailwind the airplane approaches at its normal airspeed, but the wind adds to it, so groundspeed is higher; the Airplane Flying Handbook notes this steepens the needed approach picture, lengthens the float and the landing roll, and makes it likely to overshoot the intended spot. Airspeed at touchdown is not what increases; groundspeed is, and undershooting is the headwind problem.

Source: Airplane Flying HandbookACS CA.IV.B.K2

Correct answer: C. above the flight path of the large aircraft.

Wake vortices sink behind and below the generating aircraft at a few hundred feet per minute, leveling off roughly 500 to 1,000 feet below its flight path. AIM 7-4-6 therefore recommends staying at or above the large aircraft's flight path; flying at its altitude or below puts you where the vortices settle.

Source: AIM 7-4-6ACS CA.IV.A.R2d

Correct answer: B. the airplane is trimmed for a power-off condition, and application of takeoff power will cause the nose to rise rapidly.

The Airplane Flying Handbook warns that on a go-around the airplane is trimmed for the low-power approach, so adding takeoff power makes the nose rise sharply and forward pressure and retrimming are needed. Flaps should be retracted in increments, not all at once, to avoid sinking, and while announcing the go-around is good practice, controlling the airplane comes first.

Source: Airplane Flying HandbookACS CA.IV.B.R3a

Correct answer: A. 2,000 feet AGL.

The ceiling is the lowest broken or overcast layer, here BKN025, or 2,500 feet AGL. 14 CFR 91.155(a) requires 500 feet below clouds in Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL, so the highest altitude to remain VFR below that ceiling is 2,000 feet AGL. 3,500 and 3,900 feet would be above the broken layer's base.

Source: 14 CFR 91.155(a)ACS CA.I.C.K2

Correct answer: A. The radar scope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.

Airborne weather radar detects precipitation, not clouds, so FAA guidance warns it gives no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions. Clear areas between strong echoes can hide clouds and turbulence, and hail can fall well outside the most intense echoes, so flying between or just clear of them is not safe; storms should be avoided by at least 20 miles.

ACS CA.I.C.K4

Correct answer: A. Three (3) separate overcast layers exist with bases at 2,500, 7,500 and 9,000 feet.

In a PIREP the sky-cover group reads base, amount, top, in hundreds of feet MSL, with layers separated by slashes. 025 OVC 045 is an overcast layer from 2,500 to 4,500 feet, 075 OVC 080 one from 7,500 to 8,000 feet, and 090 OVC a third with its base at 9,000 feet, so there are three overcast layers with bases at 2,500, 7,500 and 9,000 feet.

ACS CA.I.C.K2

Correct answer: C. 4 statute miles visibility and an overcast ceiling at 1,200 feet AGL.

At 0600Z on the 7th the governing group is FM070500 (from 0500Z): 4SM BR SCT008 OVC012. The ceiling is the overcast layer at 1,200 feet, and TAF heights are above ground level, with visibility 4 statute miles in mist. TAF cloud heights are never MSL and visibility is in statute miles, and the 1,500-foot broken layer belongs to the earlier FM070100 group.

ACS CA.I.C.K2

Correct answer: B. A warm, humid air mass.

PHAK Chapter 12 explains that warm, moist air is the most unstable combination: warm air is buoyant and moisture releases latent heat as it condenses, so rising air keeps rising. A cool, dry air mass tends to be stable, and descending (subsiding) air warms and stabilizes the atmosphere rather than destabilizing it.

Source: PHAK Chapter 12ACS CA.I.C.K3a

Correct answer: B. Yes, hail can be discharged from the anvil.

The Aviation Weather Handbook and PHAK Chapter 12 warn that pilots should anticipate hail with any thunderstorm, especially beneath the anvil of a large cumulonimbus, because hail can be carried out of the storm top and fall far from the core. Being 20 miles from the cell does not make flight under the anvil safe, and the hazard is hail, not being in a 'dissipation area'.

Source: Aviation Weather Handbook · PHAK Chapter 12ACS CA.I.C.K3h

Correct answer: B. Clear skies with gusty, turbulent winds and cooler temperatures.

PHAK Chapter 12 describes the weather after a fast-moving cold front passes: rapidly clearing skies, cooler temperatures, gusty winds and turbulence, with good visibility in the cold air behind the front. Squall lines and thunderstorms occur ahead of or along the front, and low clouds with mist are more typical of a warm front.

Source: PHAK Chapter 12ACS CA.I.C.K3e

Correct answer: A. on the north side of the high pressure area.

In the Northern Hemisphere air circulates clockwise around a high-pressure area, so on its north side the wind blows from west to east. Flying eastbound on the north side of the high gives a tailwind; the south side would give headwinds, and the center of a high has light, variable winds.

ACS CA.I.D.K2

Correct answer: B. ATC may offer a clearance to land and hold short of a specified point on the runway.

AIM 4-3-11 explains that when LAHSO is in effect, ATC may issue a clearance to land and hold short of an intersecting runway, taxiway or other designated point, which the pilot may accept or decline. LAHSO is a VFR and IFR capacity tool, not a requirement for everyone to fly IFR, and it does not signal low IFR conditions (it is not used when weather is below minimums).

Source: AIM 4-3-11ACS CA.IV.B.R3b

Correct answer: C. The turn will be made to the left.

The black sign with a yellow A in Figure 61 is a location sign: you are on taxiway Alpha. The yellow direction panels show Foxtrot with an arrow pointing up and to the left, so to taxi Alpha to Foxtrot you turn left at this intersection; Tango is up and to the right and Echo goes left and right.

ACS CA.II.D.K3

Correct answer: B. In the Chart Supplements U.S.

Airport surface hot spots are published by the FAA in the Chart Supplement, which lists each hot spot with a description, and are also depicted on airport diagrams. They are a permanent charted feature, so you look them up in the Chart Supplement during planning; they are not normally NOTAM items and Flight Service is not the source.

ACS CA.II.D.K1

Correct answer: A. below .04%.

14 CFR 91.17(a) prohibits acting as a crewmember within 8 hours of drinking alcohol, while under the influence, or with a blood alcohol concentration of 0.04 percent or more. Having waited 8 hours, you may fly only if you are not impaired and your blood alcohol is below 0.04 percent. 0.08 percent is a common highway limit, and the regulation does not set zero.

Source: 14 CFR 91.17(a)ACS CA.I.H.K2

Correct answer: C. rapid acceleration on takeoff.

PHAK Chapter 17 and AIM 8-1-5 describe the somatogravic illusion as a rapid acceleration, such as on takeoff, stimulating the otolith organs and creating the sensation of being nose-up; a pilot who reacts may push the nose down into the ground. A rapid deceleration can produce the opposite sensation, but the classic and most likely case is the acceleration on takeoff, particularly into a dark night.

Source: PHAK Chapter 17 · AIM 8-1-5ACS CA.I.H.K1d

Correct answer: A. Position accuracy may degrade without notification.

AIM 1-1-17 cautions that many VFR and handheld GPS receivers have no RAIM, so position accuracy can degrade without any warning to the pilot, and an out-of-date database may contain waypoints that have moved or no longer exist. That is why VFR GPS use should be cross-checked with pilotage or other navigation.

Source: AIM 1-1-17ACS CA.VI.B.K2

Correct answer: A. Dead reckoning.

PHAK Chapter 16 defines dead reckoning as navigation solely by computations based on time, airspeed, distance and direction, which works when ground references cannot be seen. Pilotage depends on visible landmarks, and VFR flight is permitted above or out of sight of references as long as VFR weather minimums are met.

Source: PHAK Chapter 16ACS CA.VI.A.K1

Correct answer: B. increase.

Warmer air is less dense, and density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature, so as temperature rises the air behaves like air at a higher altitude and density altitude increases (PHAK Chapter 4). Aircraft performance decreases accordingly.

Source: PHAK Chapter 4ACS CA.I.C.K3c

Correct answer: B. 105 MPH TAS, 6.2 GPH.

In the Figure 11 table, the 7,500-foot block shows 52 percent BHP at 2,300 RPM, giving 105 MPH true airspeed and 6.2 gallons per hour. The 103 MPH and 6.3 GPH values belong to the 2,500-foot row at 52 percent, and 6.6 GPH does not appear for 52 percent power.

ACS CA.I.D.K3a

Correct answer: A. carbon monoxide poisoning.

Exhaust-manifold (shroud) cabin heaters warm outside air by passing it around the exhaust; a crack in the manifold can let exhaust gases, including carbon monoxide, into the cabin air. The periodic inspection is aimed at that carbon monoxide risk, not at comfort issues like overheating or a cold cabin.

ACS CA.I.G.K1i

Correct answer: C. Lighting limitations exist.

In the Madera (MAE) data block (255 *L 55 122.8), the star before the L means lighting limitations exist, for example part-time or pilot-controlled lighting, and the Chart Supplement should be checked. The rotating beacon is shown by a star on top of the airport symbol, not next to the L, and special VFR prohibition is shown with 'NO SVFR' above the airport name.

ACS CA.I.E.K2

Correct answer: A. establish the proper glide attitude.

The Airplane Flying Handbook says that after an engine failure on takeoff the first action is to lower the nose promptly and establish the proper glide attitude, then land essentially straight ahead. Holding the climb attitude for Vy without power quickly leads to a stall, and turning back or into the wind at low altitude is a classic cause of loss-of-control accidents.

Source: Airplane Flying HandbookACS CA.IV.A.R3b

Correct answer: B. Airspeed indicator.

The air data computer takes pitot, static and temperature inputs and drives the airspeed, altitude and vertical speed displays, so its failure affects the airspeed indicator. The attitude indicator is fed by the AHRS, which uses gyros and accelerometers, and ADS-B In is a separate receiver.

ACS CA.IX.C.K2d

Correct answer: A. Yes, the weight and center of gravity is within allowable limits.

Total weight is 1,275 + 390 + 145 + 95 + 210 (35 gallons x 6 lb) = 2,115 lb, below the 2,200 lb maximum. From the loading graph the moments/1,000 are about 35.4 (pilots), 18.1 (rear passenger), 11.0 (cargo) and 18.9 (fuel); added to 102.05 that is about 185.5. On the normal-category envelope, 2,115 lb allows roughly 182 to 190, so the loading is within both weight and center of gravity limits.

ACS CA.I.F.K2f