Instrument Rating Written Test Practice Questions and Answers

Correct answer: C. 5,800 feet MSL.

The plan view of the PDX RNAV (GPS) X RWY 28L chart shows a single-sector Minimum Safe Altitude of 5,800 feet MSL within 25 NM of RW28L. Per AIM 5-4-5 the MSA provides 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance for emergency use within that radius. 2,100 feet is the initial climb altitude of the missed approach and 4,000 feet is the holding altitude at UBG.

Source: AIM 5-4-5ACS IR.VI.A.K1

Correct answer: A. Direct.

The missed approach from runway 24 at CQX is a climbing left turn direct CEPUL, which lies northeast of the airport, so the aircraft arrives heading roughly northeast. The hold at CEPUL has an inbound course of 041 degrees, within a few degrees of the arrival heading, so per AIM 5-3-8 the entry is direct.

Source: AIM 5-3-8

Correct answer: B. 600 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

If the approach procedure does not publish its own alternate minimums, 14 CFR 91.169(c)(1)(i) sets the standard alternate minimums. For an airport with a precision approach, these are a 600-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. 800 feet and 2 miles is the standard for a nonprecision approach, and 400 feet and 2 miles is not a standard alternate value.

Source: 14 CFR 91.169(c)(1)(i)ACS IR.I.C.K1

Correct answer: C. As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

When a published RVR minimum cannot be reported for the runway, 14 CFR 91.175(h) converts the RVR minimum to ground visibility using its table: RVR 2,400 feet equals 1/2 statute mile. The minimum is therefore expressed as a ground visibility of 1/2 SM. It cannot be reported as an RVR because the equipment is out, and slant-range visibility is not used for this purpose.

Source: 14 CFR 91.175(h)ACS IR.VI.B.K1

Correct answer: B. average TAS changes 10 knots or 5 percent.

AIM 5-3-3 lists, among the reports required without ATC request, a change in the average true airspeed at cruising altitude when it varies by 5 percent or 10 knots (whichever is greater) from the flight plan. The report is based on true airspeed, not groundspeed, since groundspeed changes with the wind and tells ATC nothing about your planned performance.

Source: AIM 5-3-3ACS IR.III.A.K1

Correct answer: C. if in VMC outside class A airspace.

AIM 5-1-15 states an IFR flight plan may be canceled at any time the flight is operating in VFR conditions outside Class A airspace. Simply advising ATC is not enough if you are in IMC or in Class A airspace, where all operations must be IFR (14 CFR 91.135), and cancellation is not limited to emergencies.

Source: AIM 5-1-15 · 14 CFR 91.135ACS IR.I.C.K5

Correct answer: C. must fly appropriate VFR altitudes.

On a VFR-on-top clearance you remain on an IFR flight plan but must fly at the appropriate VFR cruising altitude of 14 CFR 91.159, observe VFR visibility and cloud clearance, and still comply with applicable IFR rules (AIM 4-4-8). IFR altitudes do not apply, and you keep your assigned transponder code rather than squawking 1200 because you are still an IFR flight.

Source: 14 CFR 91.159 · AIM 4-4-8ACS IR.I.C.K2

Correct answer: B. continue as assigned and query ATC.

AIM 5-4-3 says that if crossing the final approach course is imminent and you have not been told you will be vectored across it, you should query the controller; you are not expected to turn inbound unless an approach clearance has been issued. Without a clearance you may neither join the localizer on your own nor fly a procedure turn, so you keep the assigned heading and ask.

Source: AIM 5-4-3ACS IR.VI.B.K1

Correct answer: B. Advise "unable" and remain clear of clouds.

AIM 4-3-22 states that even when ATC provides separation, pilots practicing approaches under VFR must comply with the basic VFR weather minimums of 14 CFR 91.155, and controllers instruct them to maintain VFR. If an assigned heading or altitude would take you into a cloud, tell ATC you are unable and stay clear of clouds; entering the cloud or deviating without telling ATC are both wrong.

Source: AIM 4-3-22 · 14 CFR 91.155ACS IR.III.A.K1

Correct answer: C. when ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests 'No STAR.'

Under AIM 5-4-1, IFR pilots going to airports with published STARs may be issued one whenever ATC deems it appropriate. A pilot who does not want a STAR should put "NO STAR" in the remarks of the flight plan, or less desirably say so to ATC. No request is needed to receive a STAR, and STARs are not automatically issued to everyone.

Source: AIM 5-4-1ACS IR.III.A.K1

Correct answer: C. The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.

AIM 5-4-25 says a contact approach must be specifically requested by the pilot (ATC cannot initiate it), the pilot must be clear of clouds with at least 1 mile flight visibility and reasonably expect to continue to the airport in those conditions, the reported ground visibility must be at least 1 statute mile, and the airport must have an approach procedure. The controller does not decide or offer it, so the choices that put the decision on the controller are wrong.

Source: AIM 5-4-25ACS IR.III.A.K1

Correct answer: A. a procedure turn is not authorized.

AIM 5-4-9 states that the absence of the procedure turn barb in the plan view indicates that a procedure turn is not authorized for that procedure. A teardrop or racetrack course reversal is flown only where it is charted (for example a hold in lieu of a procedure turn), not inferred from a missing barb.

Source: AIM 5-4-9ACS IR.VI.B.K1

Correct answer: A. simultaneously monitoring two frequencies.

Under AIM 5-4-16, an aircraft flying a PRM approach must let the pilot listen to two communication frequencies at once: the tower frequency and the PRM monitor frequency, on which the monitor controller can break in if the other aircraft blunders. Pilots do need PRM training, but it concerns the breakout procedures, not watching two ILS receivers, and there is no requirement to track parameters at the decision point.

Source: AIM 5-4-16ACS IR.VI.B.K1

Correct answer: C. 200 feet per nautical mile.

AIM 5-2-9 states that, unless a higher gradient is published, obstacle clearance on departure assumes the aircraft maintains a minimum climb gradient of 200 feet per nautical mile to the minimum IFR altitude. A gradient is expressed per nautical mile, not per minute, and 400 feet per nautical mile is a non-standard gradient that would have to be published.

Source: AIM 5-2-9ACS IR.V.B.K1

Correct answer: B. 90 knots.

14 CFR 97.3 defines Category A as a reference landing speed (VREF, or 1.3 VSO) of less than 91 knots, so the maximum speed for Category A minimums is 90 knots. Category B starts at 91 knots, so 100 knots belongs to Category B.

Source: 14 CFR 97.3ACS IR.VI.A.K1

Correct answer: C. 8,000 feet MSL.

In the profile view of the APA ILS RWY 35R chart (Figure 227), the lightning-bolt symbol marking glideslope intercept points to the underlined altitude 8000, just outside the LOM (CASSE, I-APA 8.1 DME). On a precision approach the final approach fix is the point where the glideslope is intercepted at that altitude, so the PFAF intercept altitude is 8,000 feet MSL. The 7977 shown at the LOM is the glideslope altitude when crossing the marker, and 7080 is the localizer-only minimum altitude after LECET.

ACS IR.VI.B.K1

Correct answer: C. radar vectors.

The Glen Rose Nine arrival description (Figure 175) says: all aircraft landing north proceed to CURLE INT and expect vectors to the final approach course. The 010 degree heading from CURLE applies to non-turbojets when DFW is landing south, and the speed notes on Figure 174 (210 or 250 KIAS) apply to turbojets at DELMO and FEVER, not at CURLE.

ACS IR.V.B.K1

Correct answer: A. increase during a climb.

PHAK Chapter 8 explains that with both the pitot ram inlet and the drain hole blocked, the air pressure trapped in the pitot line stays constant, so the airspeed indicator behaves like an altimeter. As the aircraft climbs, static pressure falls while the trapped pitot pressure does not, so the indicated airspeed increases (and decreases in a descent) regardless of actual airspeed.

Source: PHAK Chapter 8ACS IR.IV.A.K3

Correct answer: B. offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task.

The FAA's Advanced Avionics Handbook describes electronic flight displays as offering new capabilities and simplifying the basic flying task, provided the pilot is properly trained. The same handbook stresses that advanced avionics do not make up for a lack of skill or knowledge, and that simply waiting for alerts is not a substitute for active monitoring.

Source: Advanced Avionics HandbookACS IR.II.B.R1

Correct answer: A. a higher indication on the altimeter.

The alternate static source usually vents to the cabin, where pressure is slightly lower than outside, so PHAK Chapter 8 says the altimeter reads higher, the airspeed indicator reads greater, and the VSI shows a momentary climb. A lower airspeed or a momentary descent is the opposite of what occurs.

Source: PHAK Chapter 8

Correct answer: A. setting the altimeter to 29.92 inches HG.

Pressure altitude is the altitude indicated when the altimeter is set to the standard datum of 29.92 inches Hg (PHAK Chapter 8). The local setting gives indicated altitude close to true altitude, not pressure altitude.

Source: PHAK Chapter 8

Correct answer: C. Altimeter.

The Instrument Flying Handbook identifies the altimeter as the primary pitch instrument in straight-and-level flight, since it gives the most pertinent information about whether pitch is correct for holding altitude. The attitude indicator is a supporting pitch instrument, and airspeed is primary for power in that condition.

Source: Instrument Flying Handbook

Correct answer: A. field elevation.

If no current altimeter setting is available, 14 CFR 91.121(a)(1) requires setting the altimeter to the elevation of the departure airport. 29.92 is used at and above 18,000 feet MSL, and pressure altitude is not a setting.

Source: 14 CFR 91.121(a)(1)

Correct answer: C. ±75 feet from your referenced level.

The AIM and Instrument Flying Handbook say that, with the current altimeter setting, the altimeter should read within 75 feet of the known field or reference elevation; if the error is greater, the instrument should be checked before IFR flight. 100 and 150 feet are not the accepted tolerance.

Source: Instrument Flying Handbook

Correct answer: C. A half standard rate, coordinated turn to the left.

Figure 144 shows turn-and-slip indicators marked '4 MIN TURN'. On such an instrument, a needle aligned with the doghouse indicates a 4-minute (half standard rate) turn. In indicator 3 the needle is on the left mark and the ball is centered, so it is a half-standard-rate coordinated turn to the left.

Correct answer: B. The altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb.

Air pressure inside the cabin is normally slightly lower than outside static pressure because of the venturi effect of air flowing past the fuselage. Using a cabin static source therefore makes the altimeter read higher, the airspeed indicator read greater, and the VSI momentarily show a climb as the lower pressure reaches it (IFH Ch. 5). Readings lower than normal or a descent indication would be the opposite of what lower static pressure produces.

ACS IR.IV.A.K3

Correct answer: C. acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements.

14 CFR 1.1 defines the MEA as the lowest published altitude between radio fixes that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes. It does not guarantee reception of more than one VORTAC or accurate DME. It says nothing about a 1,000-foot clearance within 2 miles of an airway..

Source: 14 CFR 1.1ACS IR.I.C.K2

Correct answer: B. high altitudes close to the VORTAC.

DME measures slant range, the straight-line distance from the aircraft to the station, not horizontal ground distance (AIM 1-1-7). The difference is largest when the aircraft is high and close to the station; directly overhead, the DME shows the aircraft's height above the station. AIM 1-1-17 notes the difference increases with altitude and proximity to the NAVAID, so it is smallest at low altitude far from the VORTAC.

Source: AIM 1-1-7 · AIM 1-1-17ACS IR.II.B.K2a

Correct answer: A. Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial.

For the IFR VOR equipment check, 14 CFR 91.171(b)(3) allows a maximum bearing error of plus or minus 6 degrees when using a designated airborne checkpoint. Plus or minus 4 degrees applies to a VOT or a designated surface checkpoint (91.171(b)(1)-(2)). The tolerance is symmetric, not +6/-4.

Source: 14 CFR 91.171(b)(3)ACS IR.II.B.K2a

Correct answer: C. 80 NM.

AIM 5-1-6, under Direct Flights, says that for operations off established airways below 18,000 feet MSL you should use aids not more than 80 NM apart, which are depicted on en route low altitude charts. Wider spacing (200 or 260 NM) applies only to high-altitude operations using (H) class facilities. Neither 40 nor 70 NM is the published figure.

Source: AIM 5-1-6ACS IR.I.C.K2

Correct answer: C. The first positive, complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator.

The Instrument Flying Handbook (Ch. 9) defines VOR station passage as the first positive, complete reversal of the TO/FROM indicator. Needle movement entering the cone of confusion and a momentarily blank or flagged indicator occur before the station is actually passed, so they are not used.

Source: Instrument Flying HandbookACS IR.II.B.K2a

Correct answer: B. use a navigation or approach system other than GPS for an approach.

AIM 1-1-17 says that if RAIM is not available before the approach, the pilot should use another type of navigation and approach system, pick another destination, or delay the trip. Without integrity monitoring there is no assurance the GPS position is good enough for an approach, so starting it hoping to recapture satellites, or continuing to the missed approach point to wait for them, both rely on an unverified position.

Source: AIM 1-1-17ACS IR.VI.A.K1

Correct answer: C. acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements.

14 CFR 1.1 defines the MEA as the lowest published altitude between radio fixes that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes. It does not guarantee reception of more than one VORTAC or accurate DME. It says nothing about a 1,000-foot clearance within 2 miles of an airway..

Source: 14 CFR 1.1

Correct answer: C. Isolated embedded cumulonimbus with tops to FL330.

The red scalloped area next to marker 9 on Figure 7 is labeled 'ISOL EMBD CB 330/XXX': isolated cumulonimbus embedded in other cloud, tops FL330, and bases below the chart's FL250 lower limit (XXX). Per the Aviation Weather Handbook (27.8.3.2.1), ISOL and OCNL are distinct coverage categories, so descriptions of 'occasional' coverage or tops of 51,000 feet do not match this box.

Source: Aviation Weather HandbookACS IR.I.B.K2

Correct answer: B. expressed as P6SM.

In a U.S. TAF, a forecast visibility greater than 6 statute miles is encoded as P6SM, 'P' meaning 'plus' (Aviation Weather Handbook 27.3.2.6; AIM 7-1-28). The visibility group is not omitted, and '6PSM' is not a valid format.

Source: Aviation Weather Handbook 27.3.2.6 · AIM 7-1-28ACS IR.I.B.K2

Correct answer: A. provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.

Weather radar detects precipitation, not clouds or fog (AIM 7-1-11), so it gives no assurance of avoiding instrument meteorological conditions. The Aviation Weather Handbook (22.8.1) describes airborne radar as a tool for avoiding severe weather, not for penetrating it. It notes that hail can fall several miles from the nearest cloud and that attenuation can hide cells behind other cells, so radar neither assures hail avoidance nor makes it safe to fly between echoes.

Source: AIM 7-1-11 · Aviation Weather HandbookACS IR.I.B.K4

Correct answer: B. Wind 330° at 105 knots, temperature -58 °C.

The 39,000-foot group is 830558. A direction code over 50 means the speed is 100 knots or more: subtract 50 from the direction and add 100 to the speed (Aviation Weather Handbook 27.2). So 83 - 50 = 33, i.e. 330 degrees, and 05 + 100 = 105 knots. Temperatures above 24,000 feet are always negative, so 58 is -58 degrees C. Reading it as 130 degrees or as 205 knots misapplies this rule.

Source: Aviation Weather Handbook 27.2ACS IR.I.C.K2

Correct answer: C. Unscheduled and issued as required.

The Storm Prediction Center issues the Aviation Watch Notification Message (SAW) to describe the approximate area of a severe thunderstorm or tornado watch. The Aviation Weather Handbook (27.16.4.1) states that SAWs are nonscheduled, event-driven products, so they are issued as required, not at fixed times such as 0000Z or 0000Z and 1200Z.

Source: Aviation Weather HandbookACS IR.I.B.K1

Correct answer: C. Rain ended 42 minutes past the hour, snow began 42 minutes past the hour.

In METAR remarks, precipitation type followed by B (began) or E (ended) and the minutes past the hour gives start and stop times. The Aviation Weather Handbook (24.4.3.13.11) uses this exact example: RAESNB42 means rain ended and snow began at 42 minutes past the hour. The variable wind group and the heavy snow/blowing snow/fog are in the body of the report, not the remarks, and neither is decoded correctly by the other statements.

Source: Aviation Weather HandbookACS IR.I.C.K2

Correct answer: B. Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.

In Figure 13 the aircraft flies left to right through the microburst: at position 1 it meets the increasing headwind, at 3 the strong downdraft at the core, and at 4 it is past the center in the increasing tailwind while still under the downward-curving outflow. AIM 7-1-24 says the downdraft and tailwind are both performance-decreasing, so at position 4 performance is decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft. The headwind (performance-increasing) part occurs on the entry side, not at position 4.

Source: AIM 7-1-24ACS IR.I.B.K3h

Correct answer: A. Coastal areas.

Advection fog forms when moist air moves over a colder surface and cools to its dew point. The Aviation Weather Handbook (18.1.1.1.2) and PHAK Ch. 12 state it is most common along coastal areas, for example sea air blowing over cooler land. Fog formed as air is pushed up mountain slopes is upslope fog, and fog over level inland areas on calm clear nights is typically radiation fog.

Source: Aviation Weather Handbook · PHAK (FAA-H-8083-25)ACS IR.I.B.K3j

Correct answer: A. ice to accumulate on the underside of the wings due to the higher AOA.

AC 91-74B points out that during initial climb-out the lower speed means a higher angle of attack, which exposes the underside of the airplane and its wings to the icing and lets ice accumulate farther aft than in cruise. The autopilot can mask the resulting handling changes rather than protect you, and extra airflow under the wing does not prevent ice; it is what carries the droplets there.

Source: AC 91-74BACS IR.I.B.K3i

Correct answer: B. periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the aircraft.

AC 91-74B recommends that, when using an autopilot in icing, pilots periodically disengage it and fly by hand, workload permitting, to feel handling changes caused by ice. An engaged autopilot can trim against the growing ice until it disconnects at a bad moment, and briefly cycling only the altitude hold does not let the pilot feel the aircraft.

Source: AC 91-74BACS IR.II.B.K2b

Correct answer: C. It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low level temperature inversion, a jet stream, or a frontal zone.

Wind shear can occur at any altitude and is associated with low-level temperature inversions, the jet stream, frontal zones and thunderstorms, as PHAK Chapter 12 explains. It is not limited to convergence zones, and the Coriolis force is not its principal cause.

Source: PHAK Chapter 12

Correct answer: A. circumnavigate the cell by at least 20 nautical miles.

AIM 7-1-27 advises avoiding any thunderstorm identified as severe or giving an intense radar echo by at least 20 miles. Flying under the cell or under the anvil exposes the aircraft to turbulence, wind shear and hail.

Source: AIM 7-1-27

Correct answer: B. 10

A four-light PAPI shows on glide path when the two outer lights are white and the two inner lights are red (AIM 2-1-2). In Figure 136, that is indication 10 (two white, two red). Indication 8 (four white) is well above the glide path, and 11 (one white, three red) is slightly below it.

Source: AIM 2-1-2ACS IR.VI.E.K2

Correct answer: A. Top red.

AIM 2-3-8 describes mandatory instruction signs as white inscriptions on a red background; the top sign in Figure 254 (red, with a white circle and bar) is the no-entry sign, which is a mandatory instruction sign. The two yellow panels with black lines are boundary-type signs (the ones that mark the edge of a protected area you are leaving), not mandatory instruction signs.

Source: AIM 2-3-8ACS IR.VI.E.K2

Correct answer: C. below the glidepath.

Illustration 12 in Figure 136 shows four red PAPI lights. AIM 2-1-2 says four red lights mean the aircraft is below the glide path; two white and two red is on the path, and more whites than reds means above it.

Source: AIM 2-1-2

Correct answer: C. REIL.

AIM 2-1-3 describes REIL as a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold, giving rapid identification of the approach end of the runway. MALSR is an approach light system with sequenced flashers extending into the approach area, and HIRL are the steady high-intensity lights along the runway edges.

Source: AIM 2-1-3ACS IR.VI.E.K2

Correct answer: A. Holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems, and six instrument approaches.

To act as PIC under IFR, 14 CFR 61.57(c)(1) requires that within the preceding 6 calendar months you performed and logged, in actual or simulated instrument conditions in the appropriate category of aircraft: six instrument approaches, holding procedures and tasks, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigation systems. The current rule has no requirement for 6 hours of instrument time, which was an older version of the rule. The approaches are not split by class.

Source: 14 CFR 61.57(c)(1)ACS IR.I.A.K1

Correct answer: C. an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft.

Under 14 CFR 61.133(b)(1), a commercial pilot in airplanes or powered-lifts without an instrument rating in the same category and class receives the limitation 'The carriage of passengers for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 nautical miles or at night is prohibited.' To carry passengers for hire at night or beyond 50 NM, the pilot must hold an instrument rating in the same category and class. A type rating and a first-class medical are not what removes this limitation.

Source: 14 CFR 61.133(b)(1)ACS IR.I.A.K2

Correct answer: B. The ILS approach can be credited only if you use a view-limiting device and log the name of the safety pilot.

Approaches for instrument currency under 14 CFR 61.57(c) must be flown in actual or simulated instrument conditions. In VMC that means simulated conditions with a view-limiting device and a safety pilot (91.109(c)), and 61.51(g)(3) requires the logbook to show the type and location of each approach and the name of the safety pilot. Being on an IFR flight plan or holding an IFR clearance does not by itself create instrument conditions.

Source: 14 CFR 61.57(c)ACS IR.I.A.K2

Correct answer: C. 200 foot ceiling above the approach minimums and 1 SM visibility, but not less than the visibility minimums for the approach, at your ETA.

For helicopters, 14 CFR 91.169(c)(2) requires, for an alternate with a precision approach, a forecast at the ETA of a ceiling 200 feet above the minimum for the approach to be flown and visibility of at least 1 statute mile, but never less than the minimum visibility for that approach. The 600-2 standard applies to airplanes, and the 1-hour-before/after window is the destination rule, not the alternate rule.

Source: 14 CFR 91.169(c)(2)

Correct answer: B. IFR Low Altitude En Route Charts.

AIM 3-5-2 states that the IFR Enroute Low Altitude Chart depicts all IR routes and all VR routes that accommodate operations above 1,500 feet AGL; sectional charts also show MTR information. MTRs are low-altitude routes (generally below 10,000 feet MSL), so they are not a high altitude chart item, and IFR Planning Charts are not their charting product.

Source: AIM 3-5-2ACS IR.I.C.K1

Correct answer: B. when the tower instructs the change.

AIM 5-2-8 says controllers give you the departure frequency before takeoff, but pilots should not change to departure control until requested; the tower hands you off when it is ready, often shortly after takeoff. Switching on your own before entering the clouds or at pattern altitude would leave tower without you while it is still responsible for your separation.

Source: AIM 5-2-8ACS IR.III.A.K1

Correct answer: A. hypoxia.

PHAK Chapter 17 lists cyanosis (bluish fingernails and lips) and visual impairment such as tunnel vision among the symptoms of hypoxia, caused by too little oxygen reaching the tissues. Hyperventilation is a loss of carbon dioxide and typically brings tingling and dizziness rather than cyanosis, and carbon monoxide poisoning is usually associated with headache and, classically, a reddish rather than blue skin tone.

Source: PHAK Chapter 17ACS IR.IV.A.R1

Correct answer: B. When operating in a Class A airspace.

Under 14 CFR 91.135, every operation in Class A airspace (18,000 feet MSL up to FL600) must be conducted under IFR on an ATC clearance received before entering, whatever the weather. VFR flight is permitted in Class E airspace and above 14,500 feet MSL below Class A, so an IFR clearance is not required there in VFR conditions.

Source: 14 CFR 91.135ACS IR.I.C.R3

Correct answer: B. 90 knots.

AIM 10-1-2 says that, unless otherwise specified on the chart, 90 KIAS is the maximum speed on Copter instrument approaches, and helicopters using the visibility reduction on conventional approaches must slow to no more than 90 KIAS at the missed approach point. 90 knots is also the upper limit of approach Category A, on which helicopter criteria are based.

Source: AIM 10-1-2

Correct answer: A. complacency.

The FAA's Advanced Avionics Handbook warns that the enhanced situational awareness of modern avionics can breed complacency: pilots stop actively monitoring and trust the equipment too much. Fatigue and resignation are hazards in other contexts, but they are not the concern specifically associated with advanced avionics.

Source: Advanced Avionics HandbookACS IR.II.B.R1

Correct answer: B. The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.

Runway 29 at GJT is aligned about 297 degrees, so a wind from 330 at 4 knots gives a crosswind component of roughly 2 knots from the right. AIM 7-4-4 notes that a light cross-runway component of 1 to 5 knots can keep the upwind vortex over the runway for a while and hasten the drift of the downwind vortex, so the vortices are not simply blown clear and the downwind vortex does not dissipate because of the wind.

Source: AIM 7-4-4ACS IR.IV.B.R1